Tag: CUET

CUET UG History Mock Test in Hindi for preparation of upcoming online test for the admission in Academic Session 2025-2026.

विषय: इतिहास
माध्यम: हिंदी
प्रश्न: 50

CUET UG History Subject, Free Online Practice Test for the admission of 2025-2026 Academic session.

Subject: History
Medium: English
Questions: 50

CUET UG General Test Paper in Hindi for free online practice. Section III, General Knowledge, General Awareness, General Intelligence and Mathematical ability as per CUET Entrance exam syllabus.

Section III : CUET General Test Paper in Hindi

सामान्य ज्ञान और करंट अफेयर्स

Q.1: निम्नलिखित में से कौन अमेरिकी अंतरिक्ष उड़ान कंपनी “वर्जिन गैलेक्टिक” के संस्थापकों में से एक था?
(A) रिचर्ड ब्रैनसन
(B) जैक डोरसी
(C) लैरी पेज
(D) जेफ बेजोस

Q.2: निम्नलिखित में से किस त्योहार की पूर्व संध्या पर आंध्र प्रदेश का कोट्टापाकोंडा मेला आयोजित किया जाता है?
(A) मकर संक्रांति
(B) उगादी
(C) श्री रामनवमी
(D) महा शिवरात्रि

Q.3: निम्नलिखित में से कौन राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग संख्या 3 का हिस्सा हैं?
A. कोच्चि – अलाप्पुझा
B. चंपकारा नहर
C. अलप्पुझा – कोल्लम
(A) A and B
(B) A, B and C
(C) B and C
(D) A and C

Q.4: निम्नलिखित में से कौन राष्ट्रीय पाठ्यचर्या की रूपरेखा के विकास के लिए शिक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा गठित राष्ट्रीय संचालन समिति का प्रमुख बन गया है?
(A) जगबीर सिंह
(B) नजमा अख्तर
(C) के कश्तूरीरंगन
(D) महेश चंद्र पंत

Q.5: 2022 के निर्देश के अनुसार, माइक्रोफाइनेंस ऋण के लिए पात्र होने के लिए वार्षिक आय सीमा क्या है?
(A) ₹4,00,000
(B) ₹3,00,000
(C) ₹2,00,000
(D) ₹5,00,000

Q.6: पैसे की मध्यस्थता के बिना आर्थिक विनिमय को __ एक्सचेंज कहा जाता है।
(A) वस्तु विनिमय
(B) राजस्व
(C) आपसी
(D) बैंकिंग

Q.7: शेर शाह सूरी ने 1539 ई. में हुमायूं को _ में हराया था।
(A) कन्नौज
(B) लाहौर
(C) पानीपत
(D) चौसा

Q.8: एसिटिक अम्ल के एक अणु में कितने हाइड्रोजन परमाणु होते हैं?
(A) तीन
(B) दो
(C) एक
(D) चार

Q.9: खट्टे फल __ से भरपूर होते हैं
(A) विटामिन सी
(B) विटामिन ई
(C) विटामिन डी
(D) विटामिन के

Q.10: निम्न में से कौन सी नदी सिहावा पर्वत से निकलती है ?
(A) महानदी
(B) नर्मदा
(C) सिंधु
(D) ब्रह्मपुत्र

Q.11: बैंकिंग के संदर्भ में, MICR में ‘M’ अक्षर निम्नलिखित में से किसका प्रतीक है?
(A) Monetary
(B) Mixed
(C) Magnetic
(D) Mutual

Q.12: भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935 में कितनी धाराएँ हैं ?
(A) 342
(B) 321
(C) 198
(D) 222

Q.13: सोडियम परॉक्साइड के एक अणु में ऑक्सीजन के कितने परमाणु होते हैं?
(A) चार
(B) तीन
(C) दो
(D) एक

Q.14: कलिंग वर्तमान में तटीय _ है।
(A) तमिलनाडु
(B) गुजरात
(C) ओडिशा
(D) केरल

Q.15: निम्न में से कौन सी नदी हिमाचल प्रदेश की लाहौल घाटी से निकलती है ?
(A) झेलम नदी
(B) रावी नदी
(C) ब्यास नदी
(D) चिनाब नदी

Q.16: यूपीआई एक ऐसी प्रणाली है जो एक ही मोबाइल एप्लिकेशन में कई बैंक खातों को शक्ति प्रदान करती है। यूपीआई का पूर्ण रूप क्या है?
(A) यूनिफाइड पेमेंट्स इंटरफेस
(B) यूनिवर्सल पेमेंट इंटरफेस
(C) उपयोगकर्ता भुगतान व्याख्या
(D) उपयोगकर्ता भुगतान इंटरफ़ेस

Q.17: __________को स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन की ‘ग्रैंड ओल्ड लेडी’ के रूप में जाना जाता है।
(A) सरोजिनी नायडू
(B) अरुणा आसफ अली
(C) विजया लक्ष्मी पंडित
(D) उषा मेहता

Q.18: बारहवीं शताब्दी में तोमर राजपूतों को _ के चौहानों ने हराया था।
(A) बीकानेर
(B) उदयपुर
(C) अजमेर
(D) जोधपुर

Q.19: ‘बल’ को ‘द्रव्यमान’ से विभाजित करने पर यह बराबर होता है:
(A) समय
(B) विस्थापन
(C) वेग
(D) त्वरण

Q.20: जैन धर्म के पहले तीर्थंकर ऋषभनाथ को माना जाता है, जिनका जन्म हुआ था:
(A) पाटलिपुत्र
(B) अयोध्या
(C) वैशाली
(D) वाराणसी

Q.21: निम्न में से कौन सी नदी महाराष्ट्र से निकलती है ?
(A) नर्मदा
(B) तापी
(C) गोदावरी
(D) महानदी

Q.22: रेडवर्म के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है ?
(A) लाल कीड़े के दांत नहीं होते हैं।
(B) एक रेडवर्म एक दिन में अपने वजन के बराबर भोजन खा सकता है।
(C) लाल कीड़े को उनके अस्तित्व के लिए शुष्क परिवेश की आवश्यकता होती है।
(D) उनके पास ‘गिज़र्ड’ नामक एक संरचना है, जो उन्हें अपना भोजन पीसने में मदद करती है।

Q.23: भारत का पहला निजी तौर पर निर्मित रॉकेट ISRO (भारतीय अंतरिक्ष अनुसंधान संगठन) द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। उस रॉकेट का नाम क्या है?
(A) आर्यभट्ट
(B) माइक्रोसेट
(C) विक्रम-एस
(D) एमीसैट

Q.24: ‘टी20 विश्व कप 2022’ का खिताब किस टीम ने जीता ?
(A) नेपाल
(B) इंग्लैंड
(C) ऑस्ट्रेलिया
(D) कनाडा

Q.25: 2022 -2023 में भारत की G20 अध्यक्षता का विषय क्या है?
(A) वसुधैव कुटुम्बकम
(B) भारत माता
(C) यात्रा और ग्रामीण विकास
(D) एक साथ ठीक हो जाओ, मजबूत हो जाओ

General Mental Ability Reasoning (Q. 1 to 25)
CUET UG General Test Question Paper

सामान्य बुद्धि ( रीजनिंग )

Q.1: निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी?
61, 72, 94, ?, 171
(A) 105
(B) 132
(C) 127
(D) 116

Q.2: दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस संख्या का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित कर सकती है।
432, 216, 72, 36, 12, ?
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 7

Q.3: अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला क्रम में स्थिति के आधार पर, निम्नलिखित में से तीन अक्षर-समूह किसी तरह समान हैं और एक अलग है। विषम अक्षर-समूह का चयन करें।
(A) CEIO
(B) VXBF
(C) RTXD
(D) UWAG

Q.4: सही विकल्प का चयन करें जो दिए गए शब्दों की व्यवस्था को तार्किक और सार्थक क्रम में इंगित करता है।
1. Meter
2. Kilometer
3. Decimeter
4. Millimeter
5. Hectometer
(A) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
(B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

Q.5: चिन्हों को क्रमिक रूप से बदलने और दिए गए समीकरण को संतुलित करने के लिए गणितीय चिह्नों के सही संयोजन का चयन करें।
64 * 4 * 9 * 7 * 2 = 21
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.6: दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस आकृति का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित कर सकती है।

Q.7: उस विकल्प का चयन करें जो पांचवें अक्षर-समूह से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जैसे दूसरा अक्षर-समूह पहले अक्षर-समूह से और चौथा अक्षर-समूह तीसरे अक्षर-समूह से संबंधित है।
DIVINE : ENIVID :: NATURE : ERUTAN :: PERSON : ?
(A) ONRSEP
(B) NORSEP
(C) NOSREP
(D) ONSREP

Q.8: पांच व्यक्ति S, T, U, V और W एक पंक्ति में पूर्व की ओर मुख करके खड़े हैं। केवल T, U और S के बीच में खड़ा है। U, W के दायें से तीसरे और V के ठीक बायें खड़ा है।
सबसे दायें छोर पर कौन खड़ा है?
(A) W
(B) V
(C) U
(D) S

Q.9: यदि दी गई शीट को एक घन के रूप में मोड़ा जाए, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी आकृतियाँ संभव हैं?

(A) Only B and C
(B) Only C and D
(C) Only A, B and C
(D) Only A and B

Q.10: श्रवण आनंद और रावली के पिता हैं। गौरी कृति की माँ है। निपुण आनन का पुत्र है। निपुन कृति का इकलौता भाई है। गौरी पावनी की बहू है। पावनी की एक ही बेटी और एक बेटा है। निपुण का रावली के पिता से क्या संबंध है?
(A) भाई
(B) बेटा
(C) दामाद
(D) पोता

Q.11: निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी?
525, 400, 336, 309, 301, ?
(A) 300
(B) 298
(C) 299
(D) 296

Q.12: एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में ‘MISERY’ को ‘LJHPBO’ लिखा जाता है। उस भाषा में ‘प्रशंसा’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(A) MXUPLH
(B) MUXLPH
(C) UMLXHP
(D) ULMXHP

Q.13: उस आकृति का चयन करें जो दी गई आकृति श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी।

Q.14: दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस संख्या का चयन करें जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित कर सकती है।
2, 16, 31, 49, 62, 68, 83, ?
(A) 109
(B) 105
(C) 103
(D) 107

Q.15: उस सही विकल्प का चयन करें जो दिए गए शब्दों की व्यवस्था को उस क्रम में इंगित करता है जिसमें वे अंग्रेजी शब्दकोश में दिखाई देते हैं।
1. Lateralize
2. Language
3. Laborious
4. Lamentable
5. Luggage
6. Ladder
(A) 3, 6, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
(C) 3, 6, 5, 4, 2, 1
(D) 3, 6, 4, 2, 1, 5

Q.16: एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में, ‘DISTINGUISH’ को ‘EHTSJMHTJRI’ लिखा जाता है। उस भाषा में ‘LABEFACTION’ कैसे लिखा जाएगा?
(A) MZCDGZDSJNO
(B) MBDCEZDSKMO
(C) MBCDEZDKSMO
(D) MZDCGZDSJNO

Q.17:यदि फरवरी को ‘अप्रैल’ कहा जाए, अप्रैल को ‘जून’, जून को ‘अगस्त’, अगस्त को ‘अक्टूबर’ और अक्टूबर को ‘दिसंबर’ कहा जाए, तो हम किस महीने में स्वतंत्रता दिवस मनाते हैं?
(A) दिसंबर
(B) अक्टूबर
(C) जून
(D) अगस्त

Q.18: एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में, ‘RAJESH’ को ‘IUHNFX’ लिखा जाता है, और ‘GARIMA’ को ‘BOLVFM’ लिखा जाता है। उस भाषा में ‘रितिका’ कैसे लिखी जाएगी?
(A) CMLYNX
(B) CMLXNY
(C) BMLXNX
(D) BNMXMY

Q.19: दिए गए संयोजन की सही दर्पण छवि का चयन करें जब दर्पण को PQ पर दिखाया गया है।

Q.20: एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में, ‘HARDWARE’ को 81945195 के रूप में कोडित किया गया है, और ‘INFLUX’ को 956336 के रूप में कोडित किया गया है। उस भाषा में ‘LEAGUE’ को कैसे कोडित किया जाएगा?
(A) 872341
(B) 351735
(C) 564783
(D) 217265

Q.21: एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में, ‘GOAT’ को ‘112’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है, और ‘LEAF’ को ’74’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है। उस भाषा में ‘PRIDE’ को किस प्रकार कोडित किया जाएगा?
(A) 140
(B) 204
(C) 240
(D) 104

Q.22: एक निश्चित कोड भाषा में, ‘SPIRIT’ को ’65’ और ‘DENSE’ को ’83’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है। उस भाषा में ‘LOGICAL’ को किस प्रकार कोडित किया जाएगा?
(A) 213
(B) 231
(C) 123
(D) 132

Q.23: चार दोस्तों, प्रिया, काव्या, गौरवी और शालिनी के पास अलग-अलग राशि है। यदि प्रिया काव्या से ₹88 लेती है, तो उसके पास गौरवी के बराबर राशि होगी। शालिनी और काव्या के पास कुल मिलाकर ₹550 हैं। यदि गौरवी शालिनी से ₹25 लेती है, तो उसके पास काव्या के बराबर राशि होगी। यदि शालिनी, काव्या और गौरवी के पास कुल राशि ₹840 है, तो प्रिया के पास कितनी धनराशि है?
(A) ₹280
(B) ₹224
(C) ₹202
(D) ₹315

Q.24: निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही करने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों को आपस में बदलने की आवश्यकता है?

(A) – and +
(B) + and x
(C) and x
(D) – and x

Q.25: कागज के एक टुकड़े को मोड़ने का क्रम और मोड़े गए कागज को किस तरह से काटा गया है, इसे निम्नलिखित आकृतियों में दिखाया गया है। यह पेपर अनफोल्ड होने पर कैसा दिखेगा?

मात्रात्मक योग्यता : गणित : CUET UG General Test Paper in Hindi

Q.1: एक घनाभाकार पानी की टंकी में 256 लीटर पानी है। इसकी गहराई इसकी लंबाई की आधी और चौड़ाई इसकी लंबाई और गहराई के बीच का अंतर है। टैंक की लंबाई है_________.
(A) 16 सेमी
(B) 18 सेमी
(C) 14 सेमी
(D) 12 सेमी

Q.2: यदि एक घन के विकर्ण की लंबाई सेमी है, तो इसका पार्श्व सतह क्षेत्रफल (वर्ग सेमी में) क्या है?
(A) 2,048
(B) 3,072
(C) 1,024
(D) 1,536

Q.3: ₹6,400 की राशि ₹12,500 में कितने समय में 25% प्रति वर्ष संयोजित होगी?
(A) 1 साल
(B) 4 साल
(C) 2 साल
(D) 3 साल

Q.4: 10.8, 3.6 और 20.4 का चौथा समानुपात है:
(A) 14.8
(B) 6.8
(C) 12.4
(D) 9.6

Q.5: एक संख्या में 30% की वृद्धि की जाती है और फिर 30% की कमी की जाती है। अंत में, संख्या।
(A) 10% की कमी है
(B) 9% की वृद्धि हुई है
(C) नहीं बदलता है
(D) 9% की कमी आई है

Q.6: कक्षा 9 के 20 छात्रों की औसत ऊंचाई 147 सेमी है और कक्षा 10 के 15 छात्रों की औसत ऊंचाई 154 सेमी है। दोनों कक्षाओं के विद्यार्थियों की औसत ऊँचाई (सेमी में) कितनी है?
(A) 153
(B) 150
(C) 149
(D) 152

Q.7: एक टेबल को 800 रुपये में खरीदा जाता है और 950 रुपये में बेचा जाता है। लाभ प्रतिशत ज्ञात कीजिए।
(A) 18.70%
(B) 18.75%
(C) 19%
(D) 19.75%

Q.8: एक मोबाइल की कीमत ₹15,000 है। वार्षिक बिक्री के दौरान इसकी कीमत 8 : 5 के अनुपात में घट गई। इसकी घटी हुई कीमत (₹ में) क्या है?
(A) 9,375
(B) 9,500
(C) 10,300
(D) 10,000

Q.9: 800 मीटर की दौड़ में, सूर्य कमल को 150 मीटर या 30 सेकेंड से हरा देता है। किमी/घंटा में सूर्य की गति ज्ञात कीजिए।
(A) km/h
(B) km/h
(C) km/h
(D) km/h

Q.10: कितने समय में (वर्षों में) ₹8,000 की राशि ₹9,159.20 हो जाएगी, 14% प्रति वर्ष की दर से अर्धवार्षिक रूप से संयोजित ब्याज?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

Q.11: 60 छात्रों (लड़कों और लड़कियों) की एक कक्षा में 60% लड़कियां हैं। एक परीक्षा में, लड़कों का औसत स्कोर 52 और लड़कियों का 65 है। पूरी कक्षा का औसत स्कोर क्या है?
(A) 59.8
(B) 56.9
(C) 58.7
(D) 61.5

Q.12: अनु अपनी कार को 1 घंटे के लिए 60 किमी/घंटा की गति से, 2 घंटे के लिए 55 किमी/घंटा की गति से और 3 घंटे के लिए 45 किमी/घंटा की गति से चलाती है। कार की औसत गति (किमी/घंटा में) क्या है?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 49

Q.13: अगर , तो (x – y – z)³-27xyz. का मान पाएं।
(A) 1
(B) 27
(C) -1
(D) 0

Q.14: A ने एक साइकिल खरीदी और उसे B को ₹1,000 के लाभ पर बेच दिया। B ने इसे C को 5% हानि पर बेच दिया। C ने इसे D को 10% लाभ पर ₹10,450 में बेच दिया। यदि D ने सीधे वहीं से साइकिल खरीदी होती जहाँ से A ने खरीदी थी, तो उसने कितनी राशि (₹ में) बचाई होगी?
(A) 450
(B) 1,280
(C) 1,450
(D) 1,500

Q.15: एक दुकानदार ₹60 प्रति किग्रा, ₹80 प्रति किग्रा और ₹120 प्रति किग्रा की लागत वाली तीन किस्मों की चाय को 5:8:7 के अनुपात में मिलाता है, उसे चाय के मिश्रण को 25 रु. % लाभ?
(A) 86.67
(B) 111.25
(C) 100.33
(D) 104.50

Q.16: P, Q और R मिलकर किसी कार्य को 56 दिनों में पूरा कर सकते हैं, P और Q मिलकर R द्वारा किए गए कार्य का एक-चौथाई कर सकते हैं। P और Q मिलकर पूरे काम को कितने दिनों में पूरा कर सकते हैं?
(A) 140
(B) 70
(C) 280
(D) 210

Q.17: 1000 किमी की यात्रा में, एक आदमी कुल दूरी के पहले पाँच-आठवें भाग के लिए 50 किमी/घंटा की गति से ड्राइव करता है। यदि वह पूरी यात्रा 19 घंटे में पूरी करता है (आराम का समय शामिल नहीं है), तो शेष यात्रा के लिए उसकी गति (किमी/घंटा में, 1 दशमलव स्थान तक सही) क्या है?
(A) 5.5
(B) 60.2
(C) 57.7
(D) 65.8

Q.18: एक मशीन को 9% की हानि पर ₹27,300 में बेचा गया। हानि ज्ञात कीजिए (₹ में)।
(A) 2,700
(B) 2,270
(C) 2,450
(D) 2,457

Q.19: A और B क्रमशः 24 दिनों और 48 दिनों में एक काम कर सकते हैं। एक साथ काम करते हुए, उन्होंने C की मदद से 12 दिनों में काम पूरा किया। C काम का पांच-छठा हिस्सा खुद से पूरा करने में कितना समय (दिनों में) लेगा?
(A) 54
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 48

Q.20: संख्या 52, 87, k, 103, 48, (k+4), 51 का औसत 63 है। k का मान क्या है?
(A) 44
(B) 49
(C) 46
(D) 48

Q.21: एक इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्टोर एक टेलीविजन सेट को ₹86,500 में चिह्नित करता है और उस पर 9% की छूट देता है। टेलीविज़न सेट का विक्रय मूल्य (₹ में) क्या है?
(A) ₹79,570
(B) ₹78,715
(C) ₹76,480
(D) ₹77,520

Q.22: 6 से विभाज्य 4 अंकों की सबसे बड़ी संख्या और 3 से विभाज्य 4 अंकों की सबसे छोटी संख्या का योग ज्ञात कीजिए।
(A) 11004
(B) 10998
(C) 10995
(D) 11000

Q.23: एक आयताकार मैदान की चौड़ाई उसकी लंबाई से 7.5 मीटर कम है चौड़ाई का एक तिहाई आयत की लंबाई के एक चौथाई के बराबर है। इसकी लंबाई और चौड़ाई का औसत (मी में, निकटतम पूर्णांक तक) क्या है?
(A) 26
(B) 23
(C) 30
(D) 25

Q.24: एक कक्षा में लड़कों की तुलना में दुगुनी लड़कियां हैं। यदि 45% लड़कियों और 30% लड़कों ने बाहरी दौरे के लिए अपनी सहमति प्रस्तुत की है। तो कितने प्रतिशत छात्रों ने दौरे के लिए सहमति नहीं दी है?
(A) 60%
(B) 44%
(C) 50%
(D) 40%

Q.25: A किसी काम को 10 दिनों में कर सकता है। उसने 6 दिन काम किया और काम छोड़ दिया। शेष कार्य B द्वारा 8 दिनों में किया गया। B अकेला 65% कार्य को कितने दिनों में पूरा कर सकता है?
(A) 14
(B)
(C) 12
(D) 13

Thanks for attempt CUET UG General Test Paper in Hindi. You may take this paper test in English at CUET General Test

CUET General Test Practice Question Paper for the admission in under graduate courses in central Universities. This is the section III of CUET to test the General Knowledge, General Awareness, General Intelligence and Mathematical ability of students.

Questions : Attempt any 60 questions, out of 75
Time : 60 Minutes

General Knowledge and Current Affairs (Q. 1 to 25)

Q.1: According to guidelines by the RBI (as of January 2022), how many payment banks currently active in India?
(A) 6
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 18

Q.2: On the eve of which of the following festivals is Kotappakonda Fair of Andhra Pradesh organised?
(A) Makara Sankranti
(B) Ugadi
(C) Shri Ramanavami
(D) Maha Shivaratri

Q.3: The Composition of the Council of States comes under the purview of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(A) 82
(B) 81
(C) 84
(D) 80

Q.4: Who among the following has become the Head of the National Steering Committee formed by the Ministry of Education for the development of National Curriculum Framework?
(A) Jagbir Singh
(B) Najma Akhtar
(C) K Kashturirangan
(D) Mahesh Chandra Pant

Q.5: Whose autobiography is titled ‘A Century is Not Enough: My Roller-coaster Ride to Success’?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) VVS Laxman
(C) Virender Sehwag
(D) Sourav Ganguly

Q.6: Economic exchange without the mediation of money are referred to as ________ exchanges.
(A) barter
(B) revenue
(C) mutual
(D) banking

Q.7: When do we celebrate National Press Day in India?
(A) 16 November
(B) 16 February
(C) 16 January
(D) 16 December

Q.8: How many hydrogen atoms does a molecule of acetic acid contain?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) Four

Q.9: In which of the following states in the Talaiya dam located ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Bihar
(D) Jharkhand

Q.10: Which of the following rivers originates from Sihawa Mountain?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Narmada
(C) Indus
(D) Brahmaputra

Q.11: In which of the following years was the Indian Universities Act passed during the tenure of Lord Curzon?
(A) 1900
(B) 1897
(C) 1932
(D) 1904

Q.12: How many sections are there in the Government of India Act, 1935?
(A) 342
(B) 321
(C) 198
(D) 222

Q.13: 1 September marks the beginning of the meteorological_______ in the Southern Hemisphere.
(A) summer
(B) autumn
(C) spring
(D) winter

Q.14: Kalinga is present-day coastal_________.
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Gujarat
(C) Odisha
(D) Kerala

Q.15: Respiratory failure is a condition is which your blood doesn’t have enough ______ or has too much ______.
(A) hydrogen ; oxygen
(B) oxygen ; carbon dioxide
(C) carbon-dioxide; oxygen
(D) nitrogen; oxygen

Q.16: UPI is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application. What is the full form of UPI ?
(A) Unified Payments Interface
(B) Universal Payments Interface
(C) User Pay Interpretation
(D) User Payments Interface

Q.17: Which of the following is/are NOT true about revenue receipts?
I. They are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable.
II. They can be claimed from the government under special circumstances.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II

Q.18: Tomara Rajputs were defeated in the twelfth century by the Chauhans of _______.
(A) Bikaner
(B) Udaipur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Jodhpur

Q.19: The division of powers between the Union and the States in the _______ Schedule.
(A) Fourth
(B) Third
(C) Seventh
(D) Fifth

Q.20: The first Tirthankara of Jainism is believed to be Rishabhanatha, who was born in:
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Ayodhya
(C) Vaishali
(D) Varanasi

Q.21: In which of the following countries will breakdance make its debut as an official sport in Olympics 2024?
(A) Spain
(B) Australia
(C) France
(D) New Zealand

Q.22: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about redworms?
(A) Redworms do not have teeth.
(B) A redworm can eat food equal to its own weight, in a day.
(C) Redworms need dry surroundings for their survival.
(D) They have a structure called ‘gizzard’, Which helps them in grinding their food.

Q.23: When is the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer observed globally every year?
(A) 16 September
(B) 27 November
(C) 30 March
(D) 2 February

Q.24: Which team won the ‘T20 World Cup title 2022’?
(A) Nepal
(B) England
(C) Australia
(D) Canada

Q.25: Which state will host the Khelo India National University Games in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam

General Intelligence : Reasoning (Q.1 to 25)

Q.1: Pointing towards P, Q said, “I am the only son of her mother’s son”. How is Q related to P?
(A) Brother
(B) Son
(C) Aunt
(D) Nephew

Q.2: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
432, 216, 72, 36, 12, ?
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 7

Q.3: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All boxes are gifts.
All gifts are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some boxes are cards.
II. All cards are boxes.
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(B) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) Only conclusion II follows
(D) Only conclusion I follows

Q.4: Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Meter
2. Kilometer
3. Decimeter
4. Millimeter
5. Hectometer
(A) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
(B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

Q.5: Eight girls M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circle facing towards the centre. Only three friends are sitting between P and S, M is sitting to the immediate right of S and to the immediate left of R. Only N is sitting between S and O. P is sitting second to the left of O.
Who is sitting second to the left of P?
(A) N
(B) M
(C) S
(D) R

Q.6: Select the figure among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Q.7: Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
32 : 35 :: 34 : ? :: 36 : 243
(A) 91
(B) 37
(C) 215
(D) 108

Q.8: Five persons S, T, U, V and W are standing in a line facing towards the east. Only T is standing between U and S. U is standing third to the right of W and to the immediate left of V.
Who is standing at the extreme right end?
(A) W
(B) V
(C) U
(D) S

Q.9: Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
_ PG _ _ MP _ _ A _ _ G F A
(A) MFAFGMP
(B) MFAGMFP
(C) MFAGFMP
(D) MAGFMPF

Q.10: Sravan is the father of Anand and Ravali. Gouri is the mother of Kriti. Nipun is the son of Anan. Nipun is the only brother of Kriti. Gouri is the daughter-in-law of Pavani. Pavani has only one daughter and one son. How is Nipun related to Ravali’s father?
(A) Brother
(B) Son
(C) Son-in-law
(D) Grandson

Q.11: Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one different. Select the letter-cluster that is different.
(A) NQT
(B) HKN
(C) BDH
(D) MPS

Q.12: In a certain code language, ‘MISERY’ is written as ‘LJHPBO’. How will ‘PRAISE’ be written in that language?
(A) MXUPLH
(B) MUXLPH
(C) UMLXHP
(D) ULMXHP

Q.13: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Hockey : Fullback :: Cricket : ?
(A) Deuce
(B) Gully
(C) Comeback
(D) All Ball

Q.14: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
2, 16, 31, 49, 62, 68, 83, ?
(A) 109
(B) 105
(C) 103
(D) 107

Q.15: In a certain code language, ‘PULL’ is coded as ‘8211’ and ‘YELLOW’ is ceded as ‘931167’. How will ‘POWELL’ be coded in that language?
(A) 867311
(B) 267133
(C) 829311
(D) 867211

Q.16: In a certain code language, ‘DISTINGUISH’ is written as ‘EHTSJMHTJRI’. How will ‘LABEFACTION’ be written in that language?
(A) MZCDGZDSJNO
(B) MBDCEZDSKMO
(C) MBCDEZDKSMO
(D) MZDCGZDSJNO

Q.17: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. assuming that the information given in the statements true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1. Some Birds are Insects.
2. Some Insects are Animals.
3. All Animals are Dangerous.
Conclusions:
I. Some Animals are Birds.
II. All Insects are Dangerous.
(A) Neither conclusions I nor II follows.
(B) Only conclusions II follows.
(C) Only conclusions I follows.
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.18: In a certain code language, ‘RAJESH’ is written as ‘IUHNFX’, and ‘GARIMA’ is written as ‘BOLVFM’. How will ‘RITIKA’ be written in that language?
(A) CMLYNX
(B) CMLXNY
(C) BMLXNX
(D) BNMXMY

Q.19: In a certain code language, ‘RAJESH’ is written as ‘IUHNFX’, and GARIMA’ is written as ‘BOLVFM’. How will ‘RITIKA’ be written in that language ?
(A) CMLYNX
(B) CMLXNY
(C) BMLXNX
(D) BNMXMY

Q.20: In a certain code language, ‘HARDWARE’ is coded as 81945195, and ‘INFLUX’ is coded as 956336. How will ‘LEAGUE’ be coded in that language?
(A) 872341
(B) 351735
(C) 564783
(D) 217265

Q.21: Select the option that is related to the fourth letter-cluster in the same way as the first letter-cluster is related to the second letter-cluster.
TES : QCR :: ? : NFV
(A) QIY
(B) PHX
(C) PHZ
(D) QHW

Q.22: In a certain code language, ‘SPIRIT’ is coded as ’65’ and ‘DENSE’ is coded as ’83’. How will ‘LOGICAL’ be coded in that language?
(A) 213
(B) 231
(C) 123
(D) 132

Q.23: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
BZC, EXF, HVI, KTL, ?
(A) ONR
(B) MOR
(C) NRO
(D) ORN

Q.24: Which two signs need to be interchange to be make the following equation correct?

(A) – and +
(B) + and x
(C) and x
(D) – and x

Q.25: A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which of the following pairs of numbers would be opposite to each other?

(A) 1 and 6
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 4 and 5
(D) 6 and 3

Quantitative Aptitude Mathematics (Q.1 to 25)
CUET General Test

Q.1: Find the value of (a – 2x)³ + (b – 2x)³ + (c – 2x)³ – 3(a – 2x)(b – 2x)(c – 2x), given that a + b + c = 6x.
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

Q.2: If the length of the diagonal of a cube is cm, what is its lateral surface area (in sq cm)?
(A) 2,048
(B) 3,072
(C) 1,024
(D) 1,536

Q.3: If a nine-digit number 385x3678y is divisible by 72, then the value of (y-x) is:
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

Q.4: The fourth proportional to 10.8, 3.6 and 20.4 is:
(A) 14.8
(B) 6.8
(C) 12.4
(D) 9.6

Q.5: Three successive discounts of 40%, 25% and 20%, respectively, on the marked price of a chair, are equal to a single discount of ₹960. The marked price (in ₹) of the chair is:
(A) 1,600
(B) 1,800
(C) 1,500
(D) 2,400

Q.6: The average height of 20 students of Class 9 is 147 cm and the average height of 15 students of Class 10 is 154 cm. what is the average height (in cm) of the students of the two Classes?
(A) 153
(B) 150
(C) 149
(D) 152

Q.7: By selling an article for ₹507.40, a person makes a profit of 18%. At what price (in ₹) should he sell it to make a profit of 24%?
(A) 520.80
(B) 524.60
(C) 533.20
(D) 540.50

Q.8: The price of a mobile is ₹15,000. During the annual sale, Its price decreased in the ratio of 8 : 5. What is its decreased price (in ₹) ?
(A) 9,375
(B) 9,500
(C) 10,300
(D) 10,000

Q.9: Three men do as much work as 4 boys do in 21 days. In how many days will 9 men and 2 boys complete the same work?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 11

Q.10: In how much time (in years) will ₹8,000 amount to ₹9,159.20 at 14% per annum interest compounded half yearly?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

Q.11: [(4a – 5b)³ +(5b – 3c)³ – (4a – 3c)³] is equal to:
(A) -3(4a – 5b)(5b – 3c)(4a – 3c)
(B) 60 abc
(C) 0
(D) 3(4a – 5b)(5b – 3c)(4a – 3c)

Q.12: Anu drives her car for 1 hour at a speed of 60 km/h, for 2 hours at a speed of 55 km/h, and for 3 hours at a speed of 45 km/h. What is the average speed of the car (in km/h)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 49

Q.13: A sum lent at simple interest amount to ₹6,313 in one year and ₹7,139 in 3 years. what is the rate of interest per annum?
(A) 8%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 7%

Q.14: A bought a cycle and sold it to B at a profit of ₹1,000. B sold it to C at 5% loss. C sold it to D for ₹10,450 at 10% profit. If D had bought the cycle directly from where A had bought, then how much amount (in ₹) would he have saved ?
(A) 450
(B) 1,280
(C) 1,450
(D) 1,500

Q.15: A new scooter is valued at ₹1,20,000. At the end of each year, its value is reduced by 12% of its value at the start of the year. What will be its value (in ₹) after 2 years?
(A) 1,50,528
(B) 1,00,875
(C) 96,450
(D) 92,928

Q.16: P, Q and R together can do a piece of work in 56 days, P and Q together can do one-fourth as much work as R alone. In how many days can P and Q together complete the entire work?
(A) 140
(B) 70
(C) 280
(D) 210

Q.17: 48% of the total marks is required to pass an examination and 80% to get a First Class with distinction. A student scored 817 marks and failed by 47 marks. How many marks should he secure to get First Class with distinction?
(A) 1500
(B) 1440
(C) 1600
(D) 1550

Q.18: A machine was sold at ₹27,300 at a loss of 9%. Find the loss (in ₹).
(A) 2,700
(B) 2,270
(C) 2,450
(D) 2,457

Q.19: In the last two weeks of a sale, prices are reduced by 32%. What is the sale price (to the nearest rupee) of a microwave oven which originally cost ₹25,995?
(A) 18,318
(B) 17,677
(C) 16,767
(D) 21,729

Q.20: The average of the numbers 52, 87, k, 103, 48, (k+4), 51 is 63. What is the value of k?
(A) 44
(B) 49
(C) 46
(D) 48

Q.21: A travelled from a place P to place Q at an average speed of 36 km/h. He travelled the first 75% of the distance in four-fifth of the time and the rest at a constant speed of x km/h. The value of x is:
(A) 45
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 50

Q.22: Find the sum of the greatest 4-digit number divisible by 6 and the smallest 4-digit number divisible by 3.
(A) 11004
(B) 10998
(C) 10995
(D) 11000

Q.23: The number of students in three sections of a class in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. If 20, 25 and 40 more students are admitted in the three sections, respectively, the new ratio becomes 9 : 12 : 16. The total number of students after the new admissions is:
(A) 160
(B) 100
(C) 140
(D) 185

Q.24: There are twice as many girls as boys in a class. If 45% of the girls and 30% of the boys have submitted their consent for the outstation tour. then what per cent of the students have NOT submitted consent for the tour?
(A) 60%
(B) 44%
(C) 50%
(D) 40%

Q.25: There are five numbers whose average is 72. If the first number is one-fifth of the sum of the other four numbers, then the first number is:
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 54
(D) 56

For More CUET (UG) General Test : CUET Sample Paper for UG Courses

Common University Entrance Test for Under Graduate Programmes in Central Universities for the Academic Session 2024-25. CUET (UG)-2023 Section III General Test Question Paper for the practice of Computer Base online Test. This section will consist 75 questions from General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General Mental ability, Reasoning and Quantitative numerical ability.

CUET UG General Test Question Paper

Section III : General Test
60 Questions to be attempt out of 75
Time : 60 Minutes

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Q. ( 1 to 25)

Q.1: Which of the following was one of the founders of the American spaceflight company “Virgin Galactic”?
(A) Richard Branson
(B) Jack Dorsey
(C) Larry page
(D) Jeff Bezos

Q.2: Which of the following state governments declared the ‘Sushma Swaraj Award’ for women in March 2022 ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Q.3: Which of the following are the part of National Waterways Number 3?
A. Kochi – Alappuzha
B. Champakkara canal
C. Alappuzha – Kollam
(A) A and B
(B) A, B and C
(C) B and C
(D) A and C

Q.4: Which of the Five-Year Plans achieved high actual growth rate compared to its target ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) First
(D) Second

Q.5: As per the direction of 2022, what is the annual income limit to be eligible for a microfinance loan ?
(A) ₹4,00,000
(B) ₹3,00,000
(C) ₹2,00,000
(D) ₹5,00,000

Q.6: Which Committee suggested for the inclusion of Fundamental Duties?
(A) Sarkaria Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Kothari Committee
(D) Swaran Singh Committee

Q.7: Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun at _______ in AD 1539.
(A) Kannauj
(B) Lahore
(C) Panipat
(D) Chausa

Q.8: The cultural festival named ‘Attolu Eidu’ (Island Festival) is celebrated in _________.
(A) Daman & Diu
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Delhi

Q.9: Citrus fruits are rich in ______
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin E
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K

Q.10: Which of the following places in India has the widest difference between day and night temperatures?
(A) Port Blair
(B) Thiruvananthapuram
(C) Pahalgam
(D) Thar

Q.11: In the context of banking, which of the following does the letter ‘M’ stand for in MICR ?
(A) Monetary
(B) Mixed
(C) Magnetic
(D) Mutual

Q.12: Place Sikandara which comes under suburb of Agra is associated with the tomb of_______.
(A) Akbar
(B) Shivaji
(C) Jahangir
(D) Babur

Q.13: How many oxygen atoms are there in a molecule of sodium peroxide?
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) One

Q.14: In which of the following categories did India NOT win any medal at the Olympic Games held in Tokyo in 2021?
(A) Boxing
(B) Weightifting
(C) Gymnastics
(D) Athletics

Q.15: Which of the following rivers originates from the Lahaul Valley of Himachal Pradesh ?
(A) Jhelum river
(B) Ravi river
(C) Beas river
(D) Chenab river

Q.16: Long Walk to Freedom’ is the autobiography of:
(A) Barack Obama
(B) Ho chi Minh
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Nelson Mandela

Q.17: ______ is known as the ‘Grand Old Lady’ of the Independence Movement.
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Aruna Asaf Ali
(C) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(D) Usha Mehta

Q.18: In the wake of the information technology revolution in India, which of the following capitals has been occupying the most dominant position ?
(A) Meterial
(B) Plant
(C) Machinery
(D) Human Capital

Q.19: ‘Force’ divided by ‘mass’ is equal to:
(A) time
(B) displacement
(C) velocity
(D) acceleration

Q.20: The ‘Kalpataru Utsav is held on the first of _____ every year.
(A) March
(B) February
(C) April
(D) January

Q.21: Which of the following rivers originates in Maharashtra ?
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapi
(C) Godavari
(D) Mahanadi

Q.22: Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals with:
(A) Right to Freedom of Religion
(B) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(C) Right to Freedom
(D) Right to Equality

Q.23 : India’s first privately built rocket was launched by ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). What is the name of that rocket?
(A) Aryabhata
(B) Microsat
(C) Vikram-S
(D) EMISAT

Q.24 : Who became the 50th Chief Justice of India?
(A) Justice DY Chandrachud
(B) Justice Kamal Narain Singh
(C) Justice K.M. Joseph
(D) Justice U U Lalit

Q.25 : What is the theme of India’s G20 Presidency in 2022 -2023?
(A) Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
(B) Bharat Mata
(C) Travel and Rural Development
(D) Recover Together, Recover Stronger

General Mental Ability Reasoning (Q. 1 to 25)
CUET UG General Test Question Paper

Q.1: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
61, 72, 94, ?, 171
(A) 105
(B) 132
(C) 127
(D) 116

Q.2: ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
If ‘P # Q @ R & S # T’, then how is P related to T?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister’s daughter
(C) Mother’s sister
(D) Father’s sister

Q.3: Based on the position in the English alphabetical order, three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
(A) CEIO
(B) VXBF
(C) RTXD
(D) UWAG

Q.4: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers the given sets.
(11, 8, 57)
(13, 4, 51)
(A) (8, 6, 48)
(B) (14, 8, 56)
(C) (9, 7, 48)
(D) (12, 9, 69)

Q.5: Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.
64 * 4 * 9 * 7 * 2 = 21
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.6: the second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operations(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.
(A) 33 : 9
(B) 25 : 7
(C) 49 : 13
(D) 43 : 11

Q.7: Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
DIVINE : ENIVID :: NATURE : ERUTAN :: PERSON : ?
(A) ONRSEP
(B) NORSEP
(C) NOSREP
(D) ONSREP

Q.8: Which two signs and numbers need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(A) 42 and 39, + and –
(B) 42 and 6, + and –
(C) 13 and 3, + and –
(D) 13 and 4, + and –

Q.9: If the given sheet is folded to form a cube, which of the following figures are possible?

(A) Only B and C
(B) Only C and D
(C) Only A, B and C
(D) Only A and B

Q.10: In a certain code language, ‘BAG’ is written as ‘9’ and ‘PURSE’ is written as ’25’. How will ‘WALLET’ be written in that language?
(A) 40
(B) 36
(C) 30
(D) 49

Q.11: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
525, 400, 336, 309, 301, ?
(A) 300
(B) 298
(C) 299
(D) 296

Q.12:Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with Commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All umbrellas are raincoats.
All raincoats are sweaters.
All sweaters are jackets.
Conclusions:
I. Some jackets are umbrellas.
II. No jacket is a raincoat.
III. Some sweaters are umbrellas.
(A) All conclusions follow
(B) Only conclusions I and II follow
(C) Only conclusions II and III follow
(D) Only conclusions I and III follow

Q.13: Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure series.

Q.14: In a code language, ‘flip this coin’ is written as ‘es pt ki’, ‘coin was lost’ is written as ‘th ki ol’ and ‘was this real’ is written as ‘ve th es’. What is the code for ‘lost real’ in this language?
(A) ve ol
(B) th ve
(C) ol es
(D) es th

Q.15: Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Lateralize
2. Language
3. Laborious
4. Lamentable
5. Luggage
6. Ladder
(A) 3, 6, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
(C) 3, 6, 5, 4, 2, 1
(D) 3, 6, 4, 2, 1, 5

Q.16: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. E sits second to the left of C. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and G. G is an immediate neighbour of E. Only two person sit between E and H. B is an immediate neighbour of D. Only one person sits between B and F. What is the position of D with respect to H in the above arrangement?
(A) To the immediate right
(B) Third to the left
(C) Fourth to the left
(D) Second to the right

Q.17: If February is called ‘April’, April is called ‘June’, June is called ‘August’, August is called ‘October’, and October is called ‘December’, then in which month do we celebrate Independence Day ?
(A) December
(B) October
(C) June
(D) August

Q.18: Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
Q _ L _ PQP _ BPQ _ LB _ Q _ L _ P
(A) P, B, L, P, P, P, B
(B) P, P, P, B, B, L, Q
(C) P, Q, P, L, P, B, P
(D) P, Q, L, P, B, P, B

Q.19: Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown.

Q.20: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1. Some rats are pigeons.
2. All pigeons are mangoes.
Conclusions:
I. All mangoes are pigeons.
II. Some rats are mangoes.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Only conclusion II follows.
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.21: In a certain code language, ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘112’, and ‘LEAF’ is coded as ’74’. How will ‘PRIDE’ be coded in that language?
(A) 140
(B) 204
(C) 240
(D) 104

Q.22: Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 17

Q.23: Four friends, Priya, Kavya, Gaurvi and Shalini, have different amounts of money with them. If Priya takes ₹88 from Kavya, then she will have an amount equal to what Gaurvi has. Shalini and Kavya together have a total of ₹550. If Gaurvi takes ₹25 from Shalini, She will have an amount equal to what Kavya has. If the total amount with Shalini, Kavya and Gaurvi is ₹840, how much money does Priya have ?
(A) ₹280
(B) ₹224
(C) ₹202
(D) ₹315

Q.24: Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Q.25: The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded ?

Numerical Ability Quantitative :Mathematics (Q.1 to 25)
CUET UG General Test Question Paper

Q.1: A cuboidal water tank contains 256 litres of water. Its depth is half of its length and its breadth is of the difference between its length and depth. The length of the tank is _________.
(A) 16 cm
(B) 18 cm
(C) 14 cm
(D) 12 cm

Q.2: Ramesh takes twice as long as Naresh and Mahesh together to complete a job. Naresh takes three times as long as Ramesh and Mahesh together to complete a job. If all the three working together can complete the job in 30 days, then find the number of days Ramesh alone will take to finish the job.
(A) 90 days
(B) 96 days
(C) 98 days
(D) 100 days

Q.3: In what time will ₹6,400 amount to ₹12,500 if compound 25% per annum?
(A) 1 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years

Q.4: An electronic store owner allows two successive discounts of 15% and 20% on each item. As an incentive, if the net payment after the discounts is above ₹30,000, the customer gets an additional discount of 4%. The store also has a scheme of reward points credited to the customer’s account on previous purchases from the store. This enables a customer’s to get free shopping worth ₹0.25 on every 1 reward point earned. A customer decides to buy a hot water geyser that is marked at ₹48,000. what will be its net selling price (in ₹) for him if he has 1680 reward points to his credit on the previous purchases from his store?
(A) 34,190
(B) 30,419
(C) 39,410
(D) 30,914

Q.5: A number is increased by 30% and then decreased by 30%. Finally, the number.
(A) is decrease by 10%
(B) is increased by 9%
(C) does not change
(D) is decreased by 9%

Q.6: In what ratio should water be mixed with milk at Rs. 29 per litre so as to get the average price of the mixture at Rs.25 per litre? (Assuming the cost price of water to be zero.)
(A) 23 : 4
(B) 25 : 4
(C) 4 : 15
(D) 4 : 23

Q.7: A table is bought for Rs.800 and sold for Rs.950. Find the profit percent.
(A) 18.70%
(B) 18.75%
(C) 19%
(D) 19.75%

Q.8: If the mean proportional between two numbers is 18 and the first number is greater than the second number by 15, find the first number.
(A) 27
(B) 36
(C) 18
(D) 15

Q.9: In a race of 800m, Surya beats Kamal by 150m or 30sec. Find the speed of Surya in km/h.
(A) km/h
(B) km/h
(C) km/h
(D) km/h

Q.10: Find the value of such that a 6-digit number 602p0p is divisible by 9.
(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 24
(D) 22

Q.11: In a class of 60 students (boys and girls), there are 60% girls. In an examination, the average score of the boys is 52 and that of the girls is 65. What is the average score of the whole class?
(A) 59.8
(B) 56.9
(C) 58.7
(D) 61.5

Q.12: If A : B = 1.2 : 2.5 and B : C = 1 : 1.4, what is A : B : C ?
(A) 1.2 : 2.5 : 4
(B) 3 : 5 : 4
(C) 6 : 15 : 35
(D) 12 : 25 : 35

Q.13: If , then find the value of (x – y – z)³-27xyz.
(A) 1
(B) 27
(C) -1
(D) 0

Q.14: A certain sum is divided between A, B and C, such that the ratio of shares of A and C is 7 : 5 and that of C and B is 8 : 3, If the difference between the shares of A and B is ₹984, then the sum (in ₹) is:
(A) 2,664
(B) 2,640
(C) 2,592
(D) 2,520

Q.15: A shopkeeper mixes three varieties of tea costing ₹60 per kg, ₹80 per kg and ₹120 per kg in the ratio 5 : 8 : 7, At what price (in ₹) per kg should he sell the tea mixture to earn a 25% profit?
(A) 86.67
(B) 111.25
(C) 100.33
(D) 104.50

Q.16: A certain sum of money becomes 5 times in 15 years when invested at simple interest. In how much time (years and months) will it become 12 times of itself at the same rate at simple interest?
(A) 41 years 3 months
(B) 40 years 6 months
(C) 39 years 9 months
(D) 42 years 4 months

Q.17: In a 1000 km trip, a man drives at a speed of 50 km/h for the first five-eighth of the total distance. If he Completes the whole journey in 19 hours (resting time not included), what is his speed (in km/h, correct up to 1 decimal place) for the rest of the journey ?
(A) 5.5
(B) 60.2
(C) 57.7
(D) 65.8

Q.18: Find the value of 98.2² – 88.2²
(A) 186.4
(B) 1864
(C) 1846
(D) 100

Q.19: A and B can do a piece of work in 24 days and 48 days, respectively. Working together, they completed the work in 12 days with the help of C. How long (in days) will C take to do five-sixth of the work all by himself?
(A) 54
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 48

Q.20: A 280 m long train is running at a speed of 54 km/h . In how much time (in seconds) will it cross a man moving at 12 km/h in the same direction as that of the train?
(A) 28
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25

Q.21: An electronic store marks a television set for ₹86,500 and allows a discount of 9% on it. what is the selling price (in ₹) of the television set?
(A) ₹79,570
(B) ₹78,715
(C) ₹76,480
(D) ₹77,520

Q.22: A museum has an average of 340 visitors on Sunday and 160 on others days. What is the average number of visitors per day in the month of June beginning with Sunday?
(A) 190
(B) 184
(C) 200
(D) 210

Q.23: The breadth of a rectangular field is 7.5 m shorter than its length One-third of the breadth is equal to one-fourth of the length of the rectangle. what is the average (in m, to the nearest integer) of its length and breadth?
(A) 26
(B) 23
(C) 30
(D) 25

Q.24: A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹319.20 after offering a discount of 5% on its marked price. Had he not given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 12%. The cost price (in ₹) of the article is:
(A) 240
(B) 280
(C) 300
(D) 250

Q.25: A can do a work in 10 days. He worked for 6 days and left the work. The remaining work was done by B in 8 days. In how many days can B alone do 65% of the work?
(A) 14
(B)
(C) 12
(D) 13

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CUET (UG) Mock Test
Subject : Home Science
Attempt any 40 MCQ questions, out of 50
Time : 45 miniutes

CUET (UG) Home Science Mock Test

Q.1: What is the meaning of development?
(a) Successive series of changes
(b) Progressive series of changes that occur as a result of motivation
(c) Progressive series of changes that occur in an orderly and predictable pattern as a result of maturation and experience.
(d) Progressive series of changes that occur as a result of motivation and experience.

Q.2: The span of years during which boys and girls move from childhood to adulthood – mentally, emotionally, socially and physically is called __.
(a) Late childhood
(b) Infancy
(c) Adolescence
(d) None of these

Q.3: An adolescent who faces identity crises and poor self esteem is often the result of ___.
(a) Early experiences
(b) Underachievement
(c) Developmental issues
(d) All of these

Q.4: To how many distinct phases puberty is divided?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Q.5: What approach could be adopted by the parents to improve their relations with adolescents?
(a) Frequent communication
(b) Providing them opportunities
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Making a decision for them

Q.6: What kind of issues and concerns are encountered during adolescence period?
(a) Depression
(b) Eating disorders
(c) Handling stress and peer pressure
(d) All of the above

Q.7: Which of the following factor/s didn’t influence career choices of an individual?
(a) Social Prestige
(b) Internal satisfaction
(c) Economic stability
(d) Peer Pressure

Q.8: Middle adulthood occurs between the age of _________
(a) 35 to 40 years
(b) 35 to 45 years
(c) 35 to 54 years
(d) 35 to 60 years

Q.9: What could be done by a person to control his anger? Choose the correct option:
(a) Best method is to forgive and forget.
(b) One can write down his/her thoughts.
(c) Divert his/her attention by involving in a hobby or activity.
(d) All of the above

Q.10: Why is Calcium required for an infant aged 0 to 12 months?
(a) High metabolic rate
(b) Muscles grow in size and strength
(c) Increase in blood volume
(d) Increase in bone structure

Q.11: What is the calorie requirement of women doing sedentary work?
(a) 2425 kcal
(b) 1875 kcal
(c) 2225 kcal
(d) 3800 kcal

Q.12: According to the ICMR, the portion size of cereals and millets in a balanced diet should be _.
(a) 30 gm
(b) 50 gm
(c) 20 gm
(d) 40 gm

Q.13: All vegetables and fruits should be washed with
(a) Potassium chloride
(b) Zinc oxide
(c) Magnesium permanganate
(d) Potassium permanganate

Q.14: According to ____________, food adulteration is the act of deliberately spoiling the quality of food that is offered for sale.
(a) FPO
(b) FSSAI
(c) AGMARK
(d) ISI MARK

Q.15: First Agmark standard was fixed for
(a) Pulses
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Ghee

Q.16: When is liquid diet given?
(a) After recovery
(b) Before surgery
(c) After surgery
(d) Before disease

Q.17: Which of the following contain gluten protein?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Maize

Q.18: What is an example of Intermitten fever?
(a) Influenza
(b) Malaria
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Tuberculosis

Q.19: Barter of goods is a way to increase _.
(a) indirect income
(b) direct income
(c) real income
(d) money income

Q.20: Choose a problem a family can face if it does not maintain a record of its house hold expenses.
(a) Judicious expenses on household
(b) No Guidance for Current and Future Expenses
(c) Buying branded items
(d) Preparation of food at home

Q.21: Income means
(a) money
(b) house
(c) furniture
(d) All the above

Q.22: Which of the following is the best option for home saving?
(a) Post office
(b) Banks
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) Private agency

Q.23: Fixed Deposit can
(a) not be withdrawn before maturity
(b) paid only after maturity
(c) be withdrawn before maturity
(d) All of above

Q.24: LIC Jeevan Arogya scheme is a comprehensive health policy. Based on this statement, choose a feature of his policy from the following options:
(a) Income Tax rebate is not available
(b) It covers only the policy holder
(c) It has flexible premium payment options
(d) The full amount of sum is payable to the nominee

Q.25: What is adulteration?
(a) Lack of quality
(b) Unintentional addition of substance which compromises the quality of the product
(c) Intentional addition or removal of components which compromises the quality of the product
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.26: Which one of the following does not provide certificate of standardisation in India?
(a) ISI
(b) Agmark
(c) Hallmark
(d) COPRA

Q.27: Your friend from village has come to city. He wants to buy a packet of biscuit. He does not know about standardization mark. Which logo or mark you will have to look for on a biscuit packet to help him?
(a) Agmark
(b) FSSAI
(c) Hallmark
(d) ISO mark

Q.28: Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Tint- red
(b) Shade- black
(c) Warm- pink
(d) Cool- blue

Q.29: In an apparel, the proportion of the blouse, skirt and body should be
(a) 3 : 5 : 8
(b) 5 : 8 : 13
(c) 5 : 8 : 15
(d) 2 : 5 : 8

Q.30: Which of the following is not an incident of harmony in designing?
(a) Square collar with square pockets
(b) Satin kurti with satin pants
(c) Flower print with striped pockets
(d) Same color gathers and darts

Q.31: Which of the fabrics is the costliest?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Pure wool
(d) Nylon

Q.32: The appearance of the fabric is impacted by
(a) Fiber yarn
(b) Weave
(c) Finish
(d) All of these

Q.33: Which of the following statement is true?
(i) Fabric should be soft and smooth
(ii) Fabric should allow air to pass
(iii) Fabric should be light weight
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) All of these

Q.34: Rohan is an infant. His mother wants to get some clothes for him. Which fabric should she prefer?
(a) Silk
(b) Georgette
(c) Linen
(d) Crepe

Q.35: Which of the following pairs is incorrect for clothing based on size?
(a) Girls clothing- chest size
(b) Men’s shirt- collar size
(c) Trousers- free size
(d) Children clothing- age

Q.36: Which of the following is true for hemming in apparels?
(a) It should be uniform in size and lie flat and even.
(b) It should be made using matching threads
(c) It should have sufficient markings
(d) All of the above

Q.37: Hot iron stains are categorized into which type of stains?
(a) Mineral stains
(b) Other stains
(c) Colour stains
(d) None of the above

Q.38: Choose the correct pair from the given options.
(a) Alkaline reagents- sodium perbonate
(b) Acidic reagents- oxalic acid
(c) Solvents- hydrogen peroxide
(d) Bleaching agents- Vinegar

Q.39: Which of the following is/are the common principles used for storing daily wear clothes?
(a) Used clothes should be dried out before hanging.
(b) Use of insecticides is advised before storing any types of clothes.
(c) Small garments should be stored in a separate small drawer.
(d) All of the above

Q.40: Which type of cloth is used in the simple filtering method?
(a) Cotton
(b) Muslin
(c) Velvet
(d) Nylon

Q.41: In which method, a small size filter is used with a candle?
(a) Zero B Filter
(b) UV Filter
(c) RO Filter
(d) Four Pitcher Method

Q.42: In how much time, the filters in the RO Filter method need to be changed?
(a) Every 1 year
(b) Every 60 days
(c) Every 6 months
(d) Every 6 weeks

Q.43: Which of the following is a benefit of chlorine tablets?
(a) It is an unreliable method.
(b) It kills any coliform bacteria in the water.
(c) It removes suspended impurities.
(d) It uses filtered water

Q.44: When was the DWCRA scheme introduced?
(a) 1981-82
(b) 1982-83
(c) 1983-84
(d) 1984-85

Q.45: Who implements the DWCRA?
(a) DRDA
(b) DWCRA team
(c) Gram panchayat
(d) The union government

Q.46: The MGNREGA scheme is run by
(a) The Union Government
(b) The State Government
(c) Gram Panchayat
(d) All of the above

Q.47: ______________ means that one is working for some other persons and that one is paid in return of the services rendered.
(a) Wage employment
(b) Self employment
(c) Corporate employment
(d) Government employment

Q.48: What kind of self employment can a person be involved in after learning about consumer awareness?
(a) Consumer activist
(b) Running a school
(c) Providing consultancy
(d) Starting a business

Q.49: What is the calories requirement per day of an infant aged 6 to 12 months?
(a) 92 kcal/kg body weight
(b) 80 kcal/kg body weight
(c) 2.05 g/kg body weight
(d) 1.65 g/kg body weight

Q.50: Which of the following is not the cultural factors influencing food selection?
(a) Regional preferences
(b) Media and peer groups
(c) Traditions, customs and festivals
(d) Religious beliefs

Answer key : CUET Home Science Mock Test

1. (c)	2. (c)	3. (b)	4. (a)	5. (d)	6. (d)	7. (d)	8. (c)	9. (d)	10. (d)
11. (b)	12. (a)	13. (d)	14. (b)	15. (d)	16. (c)	17. (b)	18. (b)	19. (a)	20. (b)
21. (d)	22. (c)	23. (c)	24. (c)	25. (d)	26. (d)	27. (b)	28. (a)	29. (a)	30. (c)
31. (c)	32. (d)	33. (d)	34. (c)	35. (c)	36. (d)	37. (b)	38. (b)	39. (d)	40. (b)
41. (a)	42. (c)	43. (b)	44. (b)	45. (a)	46. (c)	47. (a)	48. (a)	49. (b)	50. (b)

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