Tag: CUET

Home Science Sample question Paper of Common University Entrance Test for Undergraduate courses CUET (UG) for the admission in academic session 2024 – 2025.

Number of Questions : Attempt any 40 MCQ, out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET Home Science Sample Paper

Q.1: Development process begins from ___.
(a) Specific to general
(b) Simple to easy
(c) General to specific
(d) All of the above

Q.2: Which of the following statement is true corresponding to Proximodistal development?
(a) Development is from head to foot
(b) Development is from foot to head
(c) Development is from centre to outwards of the body
(d) None of the above

Q.3: Which of the following is/are the Psychological needs of adolescents?
(a) Need for food
(b) Need for approval
(c) Need for rest and sleep
(d) Need for oxygen

Q.4: Which among the following is not a factor that influences the formation of the identity of the adolescent?
(a) Emotional changes
(b) Biological and physical changes
(c) Cognitive changes
(d) Traditional context

Q.5: Menarche usually is considered the point of _________ in girls.
(a) Sexual maturity
(b) Cognitive maturity
(c) Physical maturity
(d) Emotional maturity

Q.6: Why adolescents are over-concerned about their physical appearance and looks? Identify the reason.
(a) Respond differently to different situations
(b) Want to become socially popular
(c) They are self-conscious and pre-occupied
(d) Didn’t believe in themselves

Q.7: The period of young adulthood occurs between the age of__________________.
(a) 18-34
(b) 18-35
(c) 21-30
(d) 21-34

Q.8: Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to problems faced during a career?
(a) Choosing a wrong choice of career leads to dissatisfaction.
(b) Adjust according to their job conditions.
(c) Frequent changes are required in a job.
(d) Job satisfaction in the initial stage of career.

Q.9: What could an old age person do so that they can become dependent on children or others?
(a) Arranging a pension or any other type of finances.
(b) A stable diet and satisfactory diet for health.
(c) Participating in social activities
(d) All of the above

Q.10: Pulses and legumes provide which of the following nutrients
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Fat
(c) Vitamin B2
(d) Invisible fats

Q.11: What will Calcium deficiency in an adolescent lead to?
(a) Decrease in physical growth
(b) Metabolic rate reduces
(c) Stunted and uneven growth
(d) All of the above

Q.12: Why is Vitamin A essential for a pregnant woman?
(a) To increase body weight
(b) For regeneration of blood cells
(c) For providing immunity
(d) To improve foeto-placental functioning

Q.13: ___________refers to the maintenance of cleanliness while handling food items.
(a) Food hygiene
(b) Food monitoring
(c) Food safety
(d) Food handling

Q.14: What should be used to handle the utensils while serving?
(a) Cloth
(b) Tongs
(c) Hand
(d) None of the above

Q.15: What is largely used in food products for colouring pulses, spices, condiments, sweets like ladoo, jalebi, etc ?
(a) Kesari Dal
(b) Argemone seeds
(c) Iron fillings
(d) Metanil yellow

Q.16: What kind of diet must be taken in Diabetes?
(a) Low carbohydrate diet
(b) Low salt diet
(c) Low oil diet
(d) High sugar diet

Q.17: When is liquid diet given?
(a) After recovery
(b) Before surgery
(c) After surgery
(d) Before disease

Q.18: Which of the following is a chronic disease caused by deficiency of nutrients?
(a) Cholera
(b) Jaundice
(c) Malaria
(d) Beriberi

Q.19: Family income means
(a) income of all related persons living in the household
(b) commodities and services produced in the country
(c) right to consume goods and services
(d) All the above

Q.20: What are the two ways that you can fix an unbalanced budget?
(a) Increase income and decrease expenses
(b) Decrease expenses and remove family members
(c) Ask an accountant to review your budget and increase income
(d) Ask a family member to review your budget and stop buying for necessities

Q.21: What is impulse buying?
(a) Buying for entertainment
(b) Buying regularly
(c) Buying on the spur of the moment
(d) Buying according to plan

Q.22: We should keep our savings with banks because
(a) It is safe
(b) It earns interest
(c) It can be withdrawn anytime
(d) All of above

Q.23: How can one withdraw money from one’s account?
(a) By asking the bank manager
(b) Through withdrawl slips
(c) By operating the bank account
(d) By going to bank

Q.24: Life insurance means
(a) Insurance of human
(b) Insurance of life of human and cattle
(c) Insurance of life of machines
(d) Insurance of life of automobiles

Q.25: Why do we need to have set rules and regulations for consumer rights?
(a) To protect and promote the interest of the consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.
(b) To bring discipline in the country.
(c) To provide police protection to consumers during a dispute with the sellers.
(d) Its aim is to make all the sellers fair and honest.

Q.26: Rights of consumer are protected under _
(a) Consumer protection 1986
(b) Consumer protection 1990
(c) Consumer protection 1982
(d) Consumer protection 1991

Q.27: Woolmak is owned by _.
(a) The Woolmark Company
(b) Organisation working under Minitsry of Textiles
(c) BIS
(d) FSSAI

Q.28: Line as an element of art is associated with
(a) Illusion
(b) Personality
(c) Tint and shade
(d) All of the above

Q.29: Surface ornamentation in textiles materials includes
(a) Simple yarns
(b) Laces
(c) Tuffing
(d) Brocades

Q.30: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rhythm allows a pleasing vision of a dress.
Reason (R) Rhythm in other words is repetition.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true

Q.31: The primary activity for selection of fabric is __
(a) Identification of purpose
(b) Design selection
(c) Durability
(d) Maintenance

Q.32: Select he correct pair.
(a) Synthetic fabrics- rainy season
(b) Flannel- summer
(c) Linen- winter
(d) None of the above

Q.33:____________refers to resistance to wear and tear.
(a) Maintenance
(b) Durability
(c) Mercerisation
(d) Finishing

Q.34: Clothing for infants should have which of the following qualities?
(a) Loose and comfortable
(b) Stiff and simple
(c) Stretchy and simple
(d) Loose and simple

Q.35: Which of the following is true for clothing for children?
(a) They must have extra margins
(b) They should have brightly colored
(c) They should be wrinkle resistant.
(d) All of the above

Q.36: Which of the following clothes have excellent draping quality?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Polyester
(d) Chiffon

Q.37: Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding soaps?
(a) They dissolve readily in water at all temperatures.
(b) They do not easily penetrate into the fabric.
(c) Leave deposits on the fabric, making it stiff and dull.
(d) Washing soaps are not perfumed.

Q.38: Which of the following is an example of Bleaching agents used to remove stains?
(a) Sodium Hydrochloride
(b) Washing Soda
(c) Ammonia
(d) Benezene

Q.39: Which method is used when the stain can be dissolved in the reagent?
(a) Chemical Method
(b) Sponging Method
(c) Solvent Method
(d) Absorbing Method

Q.40: What is a cause of water pollution?
(a) Misuse of water resources
(b) Mixing toxins in water
(c) Using water for cleansing purposes
(d) Over use of water in industries

Q.41: In the stainless steel filter, ‘steel’ is made by mixing which of the following?
(a) Chrome
(b) Nickel
(c) Steel
(d) All of these

Q.42: Which of the following is a benefit of the UV Filter method?
(a) Time consuming method
(b) Kills bacteria and viruses
(c) Removes suspended particles
(d) Easiest and cheapest method

Q.43: What amount of bleaching powder should be added to 200 gallons of water for purification?
(a) 30 gms
(b) 40 gms
(c) 50 gms
(d) 60 gms

Q.44: To which group, the income generating scheme provides employment?
(a) Traditional artisans
(b) Prospective artisans
(c) Unemployed youth
(d) All of the above

Q.45: The DWCRA scheme targeted to benefit which group?
(a) Rural families above poverty line
(b) Rural families below poverty line
(c) Urban families above poverty line
(d) Urban families below poverty line

Q.46: Which of the following is an important goal of MGNREGA?
(a) High paying job opportunities
(b) Educational benefits
(c) Livelihood security
(d) Providing job cards to all

Q.47: Which of the following works can a woman be employed to supplement their family income?
(a) Pickle making
(b) Sauce and jam making
(c) Beautician
(d) All of the above

Q.48: What kind of wage employment can a person get after learning the skills of home decoration?
(a) Assistant in a food outlet
(b) Sales executive in a fabric showroom
(c) Interior decorator in hotels
(d) Anganwadi worker

Q.49: Prevention of Food Adulteration Act has now been replaced by
(a) Food adulteration act 1973
(b) Food safety act 2000
(c) Food safety and standards act 2006
(d) None of the above

Q.50: What is used correct figure problems of design?
(a) Formal balance
(b) Horizontal balance
(c) Harmony by texture
(d) Proportion of texture

Answer Key : CUET Home Science Sample Paper

1. (c)	2. (c)	3. (b)	4. (d)	5. (a)	6. (c)	7. (a)	8. (d)	9. (d)	10. (c)
11. (c)	12. (d)	13. (a)	14. (b)	15. (d)	16. (a)	17. (a)	18. (d)	19. (a)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (d)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (a)	26. (a)	27. (a)	28. (a)	29. (c)	30. (c)
31. (a)	32. (d)	33. (b)	34. (a)	35. (d)	36. (d)	37. (a)	38. (a)	39. (b)	40. (a)
41. (d)	42. (b)	43. (d)	44. (d)	45. (b)	46. (c)	47. (d)	48. (c)	49. (c)	50. (b)

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CUET (UG) Sociology sample question paper Mock Test for the practice of upcoming exams. Practice set of 50 important MCQ questions for the preparation of university admission entrance exam 2024-2025.

Exam : CUET (UG)
Domain subject : Sociology
MCQ Questions : Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50
Time : 45 minutes

CUET (UG) Sociology Mock Test

Q.1: Who among the following said that, ‘Sociology’ can help you to map the links and connections between ‘personal troubles’ and ‘social issues’?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Emile Durkheim
(c) Bruno Latour
(d) C. Wright Mill

Q.2: Which among the following is a criticism of malthusian theory of population?
(a) Human population tend to grow at faster rate than the rate of means of subsistance.
(b) The rise of population in geometries progression and agriculture growth in arithmetic progression.
(c) Positive check to population growth on the forms of famines and diseases.
(d) Problems like poverty and starvation is not by population growth but by unequal distribution of resources.

Q.3: Which year is called the ‘Demographic divide’ in India?
(a) 1881
(b) 1901
(c) 1921
(d) 1951

Q.4: The second stage of demographic transition is called
(a) Population explosion
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Transitional stage
(d) Replacement level

Q.5: Which states in India are near the ‘replacement levels’ of population growth?
(a) Haryana
(b) Kerala
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Punjab

Q.6: Which among the following is not the use of demographic data?
(a) Economic development
(b) Planning of policies
(c) Implementation of policies
(d) Private welfare

Q.7: The term caste in the Indian context comprise of
(a) Tribes
(b) Varna
(c) Jati
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.8: What made it difficult for the caste-segregated patterns of social interaction to survive?
(a) Partition
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) None

Q.9: The tribal language spoken by Indian tribes include
(a) Indo-Aryan
(b) Dravidian
(c) Austric
(d) Tibeto-Burman

Q.10: In which of the following society, a newly married couple stays with the women’s parents?
(a) Matrilocal
(b) Patrilocal
(c) Patrilineal
(d) Matrilineal

Q.11: What is the difference between nuclear and extended family?
(a) Size of members
(b) Size of family members in locality
(c) Total members of family
(d) Total number of man in family

Q.12: What is the name of Adam Smith’s book ?
(a) Nation is Wealth
(b) Wealth and Health
(c) Tribal Wealth
(d) The Wealth of Nations

Q.13: Who uses the term social stratification to refer to a system by which categories of people in society are ranked in a hierarchy?
(a) Sociologists
(b) Criminologists
(c) Psychologists
(d) Anthropologists

Q.14: Which caste was not supposed to a mass wealth?
(a) Sudras
(b) Brahmins
(c) Jains
(d) None

Q.15: Who appointed a commission to look into measures for the welfare of the OBCs?
(a) Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.16: What campaign did Ram Mohan Roy led in Bengal?
(a) Anti-Drug Campaign
(b) Anti-Globalisation Campaign
(c) Anti-Sati Campaign
(d) None

Q.17: It means an opinion formed in advance of any familiarity with the subject before considering any available evidence.
(a) Prejudice
(b) Discrimination
(c) Stereotype
(d) Social Exclusion

Q.18: Untouchability is almost always associated with
(a) cultural differences
(b) economic exploitation
(c) racial difference
(d) physical power

Q.19: States try to establish and enhance political legitimacy through
(a) Nation Building Strategy
(b) Communist Strategy
(c) Imperial Strategy
(d) Singular National Identity

Q.20: In ………… authority, rules are obeyed because their commands are within the impersonal, formally defined scope of their office?
(a) legal-rational
(b) Totalitarianism
(c) Democratic
(d) Charismatic

Q.21: Diversity emphasises ………… rather than inequalities?
(a) equality
(b) different
(c) similarity
(d) unique

Q.22: Which among the following society is the non-state and non-market part of the public domain in which individuals get together voluntarily to create institutions and organisations?
(a) Egalitarian society
(b) Civil society
(c) Cooperative society
(d) Exclusive society

Q.23: The Right to Information Act was passed by Parliament on
(a) 15th June, 2005
(b) 13th October, 2005
(c) 20th June, 2005
(d) 21st June, 2005

Q.24: Nation building is viewed mainly as a ………… process of economic development and social transformation.
(a) Centre-driven
(b) State-driven
(c) Organisation-driven
(d) Political-driven

Q.25: MSA Rao explained how many types of impact on villages by urbanisation in India?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Q.26: A National Planning Committee was set up in ………
(a) 1936
(b) 1938
(c) 1940
(d) 1942

Q.27: An economic system in which the means of production are privately owned and organised to accumulate profits within a market system. The phenomenon is known as ………… .
(a) Capitalism
(b) Globalisation
(c) Imperialism
(d) Colonisation

Q.28: Who was known as the Father of Indian Renaissance?
(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(b) Jotiba Phule
(c) Raja Ravi Varma
(d) Raja Ram Mohun Roy

Q.29: The All-India Muslim Ladies Conference was founded in …………., Indian reformers debated not just in public meetings but through public media like newspapers and journals. Translations of writings of social reformers from one Indian language to another took place.
(a) 1914
(b) 1915
(c) 1915
(d) 1916

Q.30: ………… established their colonial rule in India.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Q.31: Who drafted a Constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and eight other Congress leaders
(b) Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.32: Who was connected to the Panchayati Raj in Tribal Regions?
(a) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(b) K Shantarian
(c) Tiplut Nongbri
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.33: ____________ emphasised on the co-existence of liberty, equality and fraternity during constituent assembly debates.
(a) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Q.34: Karachi Resolution was passed in which year?
(a) 1919
(b) 1931
(c) 1935
(d) 1923

Q.35: Which among the following constitutional amendments were made for Panchayati Raj Institution?
(a) 24th and 25th Amendment
(b) 73rd and 74th Amendment
(c) 83rd and 84th Amendment
(d) 61st and 62nd Amendment

Q.36: They have no land of their own and work on others.
(a) Zamindars
(b) Landlords
(c) Agriculture labourers
(d) Small Farmers

Q.37: Landowners managed to divide the land among relatives and other through ………… transfers
(a) Benami
(b) Hawala
(c) Black marketing
(d) Fake

Q.38: In most of the regions of India the major landowning group belong to which castes?
(a) Upper castes
(b) Lower caste
(c) Business class
(d) Jains

Q.39: Name the sociologist who coined the term ‘footloose labour’?
(a) Verrier Elwin
(b) Jan Breman
(c) Auguste Comte
(d) Herbert Spencer

Q.40: …………….. are essentially the government’s declared minimum procuring prices for agricultural products for a given year. It is primarily done to protect farmers from potential losses and to maintain a consistent price level.
(a) Support prices
(b) Subsidies
(c) Wages
(d) None of these

Q.41: The first attempt at printing books using modern technologies began in which of the following places?
(a) America
(b) Europe
(c) Asia
(d) Africa

Q.42: The globalisation has close links with the ………. .
(a) international dimensions
(b) communication revolution
(c) media industry
(d) stuctural changes

Q.43: Which city is the Financial Capital of India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata

Q.44: Which of the following traditional knowledge systems were preserved?
(a) Medicine
(b) Yoga
(c) Agriculture
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.45: Ilbert Bill agitation happened in which year
(a) 1883
(b) 1983
(c) 1884
(d) 1882

Q.46: Theory of collective action was proposed by
(a) Zald
(b) EP Thompson
(c) Mancurolson
(d) James Scott

Q.47: Which of the following are the essential elements in creating social movements?
(a) Identity politics
(b) Aspirations
(c) Cultural anxieties
(d) All of these

Q.48: The New Farmer’s Movement began in the period of ………….. .
(a) 1960’s
(b) 1970’s
(c) 1980’s
(d) 1990’s

Q.49: When did Naxalite Movement started from the region of Naxalbari?
(a) 1946
(b) 1967
(c) 1929
(d) 1968

Q.50: Resource Mobilisation Theory of social movement was given by
(a) MC Carthy
(b) Zald
(c) Mancur Olson
(d) Max Weber

Answer Key : CUET Sociology Mock Test

1. (d)	2. (d)	3. (c)	4. (c)	5. (b)	6. (d)	7. (d)	8. (c)	9. (c)	10. (a)
11. (a)	12. (d)	13. (a)	14. (b)	15. (c)	16. (c)	17. (a)	18. (b)	19. (a)	20. (a)
21. (b)	22. (b)	23. (a)	24. (b)	25. (b)	26. (b)	27. (a)	28. (d)	29. (a)	30. (a)
31. (b)	32. (c)	33. (a)	34. (b)	35. (b)	36. (c)	37. (a)	38. (a)	39. (b)	40. (a)
41. (b)	42. (b)	43. (a)	44. (d)	45. (a)	46. (c)	47. (d)	48. (b)	49. (b)	50. (a)

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CUET (UG) Psychology online Practice Mock Test of 50 MCQ questions as per latest exam pattern. Common University Entrance Test Section II Domain Subject Psychology exam practice question paper is given here.

Common University Entrance Test
Subject : Psychology
Questions : Attempt any 40 out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET (UG) Psychology Mock Test

Q.1: Which among the following are important psychological attributes?
(1) Intelligence
(2) Interest
(3) Personality
(4) Values
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of these

Q.2: The theory of seven primary mental abilities is given by
(a) Louis Thurstone
(b) Mayer
(c) Guilford
(d) Theodore Simon

Q.3: Ability to use past experiences creatively to solve novel problems is known as
(a) Musical intelligence
(b) Interpersonal intelligence
(c) Experiential intelligence
(d) Contextual intelligence

Q.4: A hierarchial model of intelligence consisting of abilities operating at two level was proposed by
(a) J.P. Guilford
(b) Charles Spearman
(c) Arthur Jensen
(d) Howard Gardner

Q.5: If a person has the skill of understanding the motives, feelings and behaviour of other people, he/she is said to have
(a) Interpersonal intelligence
(b) Intrapersonal intelligence
(c) Linguistic intelligence
(d) Social intelligence

Q.6: ………………….. involves the complete awareness of our relationship with the natural world.
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Naturalistic
(c) Intrapersonal
(d) Linguistic

Q.7: These are highly generalised in nature. They indicate the goal around which a person’s entire life seems to revolve?
(a) Person’s with cardinal traits
(b) Person’s with central traits
(c) Person’s with secondary traits
(d) Cattel’s trait theory

Q.8: Which theorist said that human beings are guided as much by aims and aspirations as by sex and aggression.
(a) Carl Jung
(b) Karen Horney
(c) Erich Fromm
(d) Alfred Adler

Q.9: Dismissing anxiety provoking behaviours or thoughts from unconscious is known as
(a) Projection
(b) Rationalisation
(c) Repression
(d) Denial

Q.10: As persons we always make some judgement about our own self is known as
(a) Self-regulation
(b) Self-esteem
(c) Self-concept
(d) Self-efficacy

Q.11: Which test consists of 10 inkblots?
(a) The Rorschach test
(b) Thematic apperception test
(c) Rosenzweig picture test
(d) Draw a person test

Q.12: Who among the following psychologist divided all personalities into introverts and extroverts?
(a) Freud
(b) Carl Jung
(c) Adler
(d) Erikson

Q.13: Who defined stress as the non-specific response of the body to any demand?
(a) Hans Selye
(b) JP Das
(c) Sternberg
(d) Lewis Terman

Q.14: The cognitive theory of stress was proposed by
(a) Selye
(b) Endler
(c) Parker
(d) Lazarus

Q.15: Blocking of needs and motives that cause hindrance in achieving the desired goal results in
(a) Stress
(b) Conflict
(c) Frustration
(d) Aggression

Q.16: Stress coping strategies like task-oriented strategy, Emotional-oriented strategy and Avoidence-oriented strategy is give by
(a) Endler and Porker
(b) Lazarus and Folkman
(c) Vygotsky
(d) Alfered Binet

Q.17: ………… is a silent killer which plays a significant role in physical illness and disease.
(a) Workout
(b) Stress
(c) Environment
(d) Emotions

Q.18: Match the List I with List II.

List-I	List-II
A. Cognitive theory of stress	1. Destroy invertors
B. Frustration-aggression hypothesis	2. Produce antibodies
C. B cells	3. Dollard and Miller
D. T cells	4. Lazarus

Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4

Q.19: Children who have marked difficulties in social interaction and communication, desire for routine and restricted interests are suffering from
(a) Alogia
(b) Impulsivity
(c) Hyperactivity
(d) Autism

Q.20: People unable to prevent themselves from repeatedly carrying out a set of actions are affected by
(a) Manic-depressive disorder
(b) Panic disorder
(c) Somatoform disorders
(d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q.21: What refers to deviation from ideal mental health?
(a) Abnormality
(b) Normality
(c) Dysfunction
(d) Disorder

Q.22: Which among the following term used when people develop a fear of entering unfamiliar situations.
(a) Social phobias
(b) Agoraphobia
(c) Specific phobias
(d) None of these

Q.23: Inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity are main features of
(a) Attention-deficit Hyperactivity disorder.
(b) Appositional Defiant Disorder
(c) Conduct Disorder
(d) None of the above

Q.24: Which model states that psychological disorder develop when a diathesis (a tendency to suffer from a medical condition) is set off by a stressful situation?
(a) Behavioural Model
(b) Diathesis-Model
(c) Socio-Cultural Model
(d) Cognitive Model

Q.25: Logotheraphy is given by
(a) Victor Frankl
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Ivan Pavlov
(d) Carl Rogers

Q.26: Mukesh meets Mr. Kamlesh every week. Considering that Mr. Kamlesh is helping Mukesh to overcome his maladaptive behaviours for a certain period, the relation between Mukesh and Mr. Kamlesh will be called
(a) Mentor-student alliance
(b) Personal alliance
(c) Therapeutic alliance
(d) Contractual alliance

Q.27: ………… combines cognitive theory with behavioural technique.
(a) CBT
(b) RET
(c) None of above
(d) HET

Q.28: The rapid breathing techniques to induce hyperventilation is part of which yoga?
(a) Sudarshana Kriya
(b) Pranayama
(c) Kundalini
(d) Ashtanga

Q.29: Kundalini yoga is effective in treatment of
(a) Mental Disorder
(b) Physical Weakness
(c) Stress
(d) None

Q.30: Cognitive therapy for the treatment of depression is given by
(a) Albert Ellis
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Aaron Beck
(d) None of these

Q.31: Which among the following is the phenomenon by which majority group places the blame on minority out group for its social, economic and political problems?
(a) Stereotype
(b) Prejudice
(c) Social Cognition
(d) Schemas

Q.32: Which among the following are attitudes that contain a ‘should’ or ‘ought’ aspect?
(a) Beliefs
(b) Values
(c) Stereotypes
(d) Prejudices

Q.33: In 1957, Leon Festinger published his theory of
(a) Balance
(b) Cognitive dissonance
(c) Attribution
(d) None of these

Q.34: A mental structure that guides social cognition is
(a) Prototype
(b) Stereotype
(c) Schema
(d) None of these

Q.35: The feature which refers to the number of attributes within a broader attitude is
(a) valence
(b) multiplexity
(c) centrality
(d) extremeness

Q.36: Working together to achieve a shared goal is called
(a) Co-operation
(b) Compliance
(c) Conformity
(d) Obedience

Q.37: Feeling of togetherness that keep a group intact is
(a) Norms
(b) Role
(c) Status
(d) Cohesiveness

Q.38: Extreme cohesiveness in groups results in
(a) Group think
(b) Group polarisation
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) None of these

Q.39: People who have assembled to watch a cricket match are at one place, but are not interdependent on each other. It is an example of
(a) Group
(b) Collection
(c) Single unit
(d) Multi unit

Q.40: The Book ‘Mind of a Man’ is written by
(a) Gardner Murphy
(b) Maslow
(c) Vygotsky
(d) Gustav Spiller

Q.41: The study of the relationship between living beings and their environment is
(a) Biology
(b) Ecology
(c) Zoology
(d) None of these

Q.42: Consider the customs of the Bishnoi Community of Rajasthan, and the Chipko Movement in the Uttarakhand region. Identifies views shared by them.
(a) The instrumental perspective
(b) The spiritual perspective
(c) The minimalist perspective
(d) None of the above

Q.43: Frustration aggression theory was proposed by?
(a) Stokols
(b) John Dollard
(c) Albert Bandura
(d) Jean Piaget

Q.44: Forceful destructive behaviour towards another person or object is termed as?
(a) Aggression
(b) Violence
(c) Frustration
(d) None of the above

Q.45: Which among the following are the causes of Aggression?
(a)InbornTendency
(b)Physiologicalmechanisms
(c) Child Rearing
(d) All of these

Q.46: The intial step in the listening process is
(a) Attention to stimulus
(b) Reception of stimulus
(c) Paraphrasing of sentences
(d) Assignment of meaning

Q.47: None-verbal acts in any talk are referred to as?
(a) Listening
(b) Talking
(c) Body language
(d) Reception

Q.48: What is defined as proficiency, facility or dexterity that is acquired or developed through training and experience?
(a) Skill
(b) Telent
(c) Intelligence
(d) None

Q.49: Which among the following language is composed of all those messages that people exchange besides words?
(a) Body language
(b) Sign language
(c) Loud language
(d) Verbal language

Q.50: Qualities of effective counsellor are
(a) Empathy
(b) Authenticity
(c) Paraphrasing
(d) All of these

Answer Key : CUET Psychology Mock Test

1. (d)	2. (a)	3. (c)	4. (c)	5. (a)	6. (b)	7. (a)	8. (a)	9. (c)	10. (c)
11. (a)	12. (b)	13. (a)	14. (d)	15. (c)	16. (a)	17. (b)	18. (a)	19. (d)	20. (d)
21. (a)	22. (b)	23. (a)	24. (b)	25. (a)	26. (c)	27. (b)	28. (a)	29. (a)	30. (c)
31. (a)	32. (b)	33. (b)	34. (c)	35. (b)	36. (a)	37. (d)	38. (a)	39. (b)	40. (d)
41. (b)	42. (b)	43. (b)	44. (b)	45. (d)	46. (b)	47. (c)	48. (a)	49. (a)	50. (d)

Thanks for attempt CUET Psychology Mock practice Test for admission in session 2024.

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CUET Psychology Sample Question Paper for the practice of upcoming University admission entrance test. 50 MCQ Questions Psychology practice set as per latest syllabus and exam pattern for academic session 2024- 2025.

Exam : CUET (UG)
Subject : Psychology
Practice any 40 questions, out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET Psychology Sample Paper

Q.1: The distinctiveness and variation among people’s characteristics and behaviour pattern is known as
(a) Individual differences
(b) Psychological similarities
(c) Physical psychology
(d) Social psychology

Q.2: Who among the following was the first psychologist to work on intelligence?
(a) Wechsler
(b) Gardner
(c) Sternberg
(d) Alfred Binet

Q.3: Who among the following was the first person that devised systematic tests to measure intelligence test?
(a) Terman
(b) Binet
(c) Thorndike
(d) Wechsler

Q.4: Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence is known as
(a) Theory of Primary Mental Abilities
(b) Theory of Multiple Intelligences
(c) Triarchic theory
(d) Two-factor theory

Q.5: ………………. test is an example of a non-verbal test.
(a) Performance test
(b) Raven’s progressive matrices test
(c) Culture based test
(d) Group test

Q.6: Sternberg’s experiential intelligence includes
(a) The ability to learn from past events
(b) The ability to manipulate people’s opinions
(c) Creative problem solving
(d) Basic academic skills

Q.7: It refers to the ability to organise and monitor one’s own behaviour.
(a) Self-control
(b) Self-regulation
(c) Self-instruction
(d) Self-reinforcement

Q.8: It includes mental activity of which people may become aware only if they attend to it closely?
(a) Unconscious
(b) Preconscious
(c) Conscious
(d) Subconscious

Q.9: Who viewed human being as social being who could be understood in terms of their relationship with others?
(a) Erik Erikson
(b) Guilford
(c) Kogan
(d) Eric Fromm

Q.10: Carl Jung developed theory of
(a) Individual psychology
(b) Analytical psychology
(c) Social psychology
(d) Psycho-analytic psychology

Q.11: The minnesta multiphasic personality inventory was developed by
(a) Hathaway and Mckinley
(b) Wallach
(c) Cattell
(d) Daniel Dubov

Q.12: Karim when asked to describe about himself describes in following manner, “I am Karim. I am honest and hardworking person. I am a singer. I do believe in God and destiny.” In this case, Karim is disclosing his ………… .
(a) Personal identity
(b) Social identity
(c) Self esteem
(d) Self efficacy

Q.13: The physical, environmental and social causes of the stress state are termed as
(a) Stress
(b) Stressors
(c) Distress
(d) None of these

Q.14: Which type of reaction are virtually limited and depending on the nature of the stressful event?
(a) Cognitive reactions
(b) Behavioural reactions
(c) Emotional reactions
(d) Physiological reactions

Q.15: Individual’s reaction to external stressor’s is called
(a) Strain
(b) Conflict
(c) Pressure
(d) Frustration

Q.16: An individual’s level of stress which helps in achieving peak success and managing minor crisis is known as
(a) Stress
(b) Distress
(c) Eustress
(d) Strain

Q.17: Which of the following is not a stress management strategy given by Endler and Parker?
(a) Problem-focussed strategy
(b) Tark-oriented strategy
(c) Emotion-oriented strategy
(d) Avoidance-oriented strategy

Q.18: Which among the following is not a way to reduce stress?
(a) Rational Thinking
(b) Diet
(c) Drinking alcohol
(d) Meditation

Q.19: Developing a fear of entering unfamiliar situation is known as
(a) Panic disorder
(b) Compulsive disorder
(c) Agoraphobia
(d) Conversion disorder

Q.20: Biological factors which influence our behaviour are
(a) Faulty genes
(b) Endocrine imbalances
(c) Malnutrition
(d) All of the above

Q.21: An individual having sudden and temporary fluctuation of consciousness that blots out painful experiences is showing signs of
(a) Panic disorder
(b) Mood disorder
(c) Conversion disorder
(d) Dissociative disorder

Q.22: Who emphasised that psychological conflict and disturbed interpersonal relationships as causes of psychological disorders?
(a) Johann Weyer
(b) Lewis Terman
(c) Galen
(d) Salovey

Q.23: In children’s aggressive behaviour like dominating and bullying others without provocation is seen in
(a) Verbal aggression
(b) Physical aggression
(c) Hostile aggression
(d) Proactive aggression

Q.24: Which among the following are commonly abused substances?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Coffins
(c) Tobacco
(d) All of these

Q.25: RET has been proposed by
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) Albert Ellis
(c) Aaron Beck
(d) Carl Rogers

Q.26: Nishant feels very strongly that everyone should love him and he should be selected to represent the school for all competitions. When this does not happen, he feels miserable and is unable to concentrate. Which form of therapy would be the most suitable for him to overcome this problem?
(a) Cognitive therapy
(b) Psychodynamic therapy
(c) Behaviour therapy
(d) Biomedical therapy

Q.27: The technique used for treating phobia or irrational fear is?
(a) Arthamatic
(b) Casual
(c) Systematic
(d) Weekly

Q.28: The goal of ………… is to increase an individual’s self awareness and self acceptance.
(a) Gestalt therapy
(b) Client-centred therapy
(c) Logotherapy
(d) None of the above

Q.29: Which among the following is a gradual process wherein the unconscious memories are repeatedly in integrated into conscious awareness?
(a) Insight
(b) Resistence
(c) Working thought
(d) Transference

Q.30: Who Formulated Rational Emotive Therapy?
(a) Aaron Beck
(b) Albert Ellis
(c) Victor Frankl
(d) Freiderick Perls

Q.31: Performance on specific tasks when influenced by the presence of other is called
(a) Attribution
(b) Attitude
(c) Social Cognition
(d) Schemas

Q.32: ……… is an example of negative attitude towards
people.
(a) Prototype
(b) Stereotype
(c) Discrimination
(d) Prejudice

Q.33: When people attribute failure to task difficulty they are referring to following factors?
(a) External, stable
(b) Internal, stable
(c) External, unstable
(d) Internal, unstable

Q.34: Improvement in behaviour due to presence of other individual is known as
(a) Imitation
(b) Social facilitation
(c) Interaction
(d) None of the above

Q.35: An augmentation in behaviour due to the presence of other individuals is known as
(a) Imitation
(b) Social facilitation
(c) Interaction
(d) None of these

Q.36: What were the reasons of joining group by people?
(i) Security
(ii) Status
(iii) Self-esteem
(iv) Satisfaction of psychological needs
Choose the correct options from below.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) All of these

Q.37: Membership of a club is an example of
(a) Primary group
(b) Secondary group
(c) Outgroup
(d) Large group

Q.38: ………… is a consequence of extreme cohesiveness.
(a) Perceptions
(b) Group interaction
(c) Group think
(d) None of these

Q.39: What is a collection of people who may be present at a place/situation by chance.
(a) Crowd
(b) Family
(c) Group
(d) Association

Q.40: It means that people feel bound to return what they get. Initial cooperation may encourage more cooperation?
(a) Reward Structure
(b) Interpersonal Communication
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Intergroup Competition

Q.41: State in which a person feel she/he has lost something valuable and is not getting what she/he deserves is known as
(a) Discrimination
(b) Deprivation
(c) Poverty
(d) Disadvantage

Q.42: Your friend thinks that the physical environment has minimal or negligible influence on human behaviour, health and well-being. Identify the views exhibited by him.
(a) The instrumental perspective
(b) The spiritual perspective
(c) The minimalist perspective
(d) None of the above

Q.43: Physical environment exists mainly for use by human beings for their comfort is suggested by which perspective?
(a) Environmental
(b) Cognitive
(c) Instrumental
(d) Personal

Q.44: Ajit is an unemployed youth. Sometime he shows aggression to his younger sister. This type behaviour is known as?
(a) Displacement
(b) Crowding
(c) Rehabilitation
(d) Frustration

Q.45: You are talking to your very good friend. Identify the interpersonal distance in this situation?
(a) Intimate distance
(b) Public distance
(c) Personal distance
(d) Social distance

Q.46: The ability of a counsellor to reflect on what the client says and feels using different words is known as
(a) Decoding
(b) Communication
(c) Listening
(d) Paraphrasing

Q.47: A psychologist has proficiency, facility or dexterity that is acquired or developed through training and experience. The characteristics like proficiency, facility or dexterity are
(a) Training
(b) Skill
(c) Teaching ability
(d) None of these

Q.48: A psychologist engages in observing various facts of surrounding including people and varying events. Thus, basic skill of psychologist is known as?
(a) Communication
(b) Observation skill
(c) Speaking
(d) Listening

Q.49: Which among the following communication refers to the communication that takes place between two or more persons who established a communicative relationship?
(a) Verbal
(b) Intrapersonal
(c) Interpersonal
(d) None

Q.50: Which among the following are types of Interview?
(a) Open-Ended Question
(b) Close-Ended Question
(c) Leading-Question
(d) All of these

Answer Key : CUET Psychology Sample Paper

1. (a)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (b)	5. (b)	6. (c)	7. (b)	8. (b)	9. (d)	10. (b)
11. (a)	12. (a)	13. (b)	14. (b)	15. (a)	16. (c)	17. (c)	18. (c)	19. (a)	20. (c)
21. (c)	22. (d)	23. (d)	24. (d)	25. (b)	26. (a)	27. (c)	28. (a)	29. (a)	30. (b)
31. (a)	32. (d)	33. (c)	34. (b)	35. (b)	36. (d)	37. (b)	38. (c)	39. (a)	40. (c)
41. (b)	42. (c)	43. (c)	44. (a)	45. (c)	46. (d)	47. (b)	48. (b)	49. (b)	50. (d)

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CUET (UG) Sociology Sample Question Paper for University Admission Entrance Test 2024-2025. Sociology MCQ questions set for online practice are given here.

Exam : CUET (UG) Entrance Exam
Subject : Sociology
Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

Sociology Question Paper : CUET (UG)

Q.1: Which sociologist describe suicide as a social phenomenon?
(a) Emile Durkheim
(b) Talcott Parsons
(c) Robert K. Merton
(d) Jean Baudrillard

Q.2: What refers to the proportion of people in different age groups relative to the total population?
(a) Age structure of population
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Fertility rate
(d) Total fertility rate

Q.3: What are the salient demographic feature of India’s population?
(a) Growth rate of population
(b) Uneven distribution population
(c) Age composition
(d) All of the above

Q.4: The theory of population growth was written in
(a) The Sociological Analysis of Population
(b) Essay on Population
(c) Sociology and Population
(d) Indian Civil Service

Q.5: Dependents comprise of
(a) young people below 15
(b) old people above 65
(c) infants and 70 plus old people
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.6: The first National Family Planning Policy was announced in
(a) 1949
(b) 1952
(c) 1975
(d) 1999

Q.7: How many major divisions were determined in the Varna system?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q.8: Who contributed to the development of sanskritisation and the dominant caste?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Bendit
(c) M. N. Srinivas
(d) Nehru

Q.9: The adivasis traded ………….
(a) salt
(b) forest produce
(c) elephants
(d) All of these

Q.10: Which of the following have been most important factor which giving rise to tribal movements?
(a) Issues related to ethnic-cultural identity.
(b) Conflict between tribes.
(c) Employment issues.
(d) Water availability related issues.

Q.11: Hierarchical order of caste is based on distinction between
(a) Purity and population
(b) Class and wealth
(c) Work and population
(d) Race and culture

Q.12: Traditionally, ……………… were the business communities.
(a) Marwaris
(b) Dhorai
(c) Vaisyas
(d) Jainis

Q.13: People often harbour what about other social groups?
(a) Equality
(b) Business
(c) Prejudices
(d) None

Q.14: What are untouchable castes considered to be?
(a) Priests
(b) Pure
(c) Impure
(d) none

Q.15: When did the OBC issue become a regional affair pursued at the state rather than the central level?
(a) Mid-forties
(b) Mid-sixties
(c) Mid-fifties
(d) None

Q.16: Who did Jyotirao Phule want to be educated?
(a) Men
(b) Boys
(c) Girls
(d) None

Q.17: Name the text written by Tarabai Shinde as a protest against society to focus on double standard of male dominated society
(a) Stree Purush
(b) Stree Satta
(c) Society of men
(d) False society

Q.18: The sociological perspective on race………… .
(a) begins with the assumption that races are based on easily classified differences
(b) considers race a social construct, not an absolute
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.19: Activities which are determined by the accidents of birth and do not involve any choice on the part of the individuals concerned are known as
(a) descriptive
(b) subjective
(c) ascriptive
(d) None of these

Q.20: How many languages are recognised officially in 8th Schedule of Constitution?
(a) Eighteen
(b) Ten
(c) Eleven
(d) Fifteen

Q.21: ………… refers to the preconceived idea about an individual or groups.
(a) Stereotype
(b) Race
(c) Prejudice
(d) Caste

Q.22: Which of the following is not a part of Civil society?
(a) Doordarshan
(b) A car manufacturing company
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.23: Which of the following term related to the arrival of modernity and the rise of science and rationality as alternatives to religious ways of understanding the world?
(a) Appreciation
(b) Licensing
(c) Privatisation
(d) Secularism

Q.24: The Report of the States Re-organisation Commission (SRC) which was implemented on?
(a) 1st October, 1956
(b) 1st November, 1956
(c) 1st September, 1956
(d) 1st December, 1956

Q.25: Our parliamentary, legal and educational system are based on which model?
(a) American model
(b) British model
(c) Indigenous model
(d) French model

Q.26: Which among the following cities experienced high rate of urbanisation in post-independence period?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) All of these

Q.27: Who did Marathi translation of Vidyasagar’s book Indu Prakash?
(a) Vishnu Shastri
(b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Keshav Chandra Sen
(d) Veeresalingam

Q.28: Which social reformer was a philosopher, printer, writer, publisher, entrepreneur, etc.?
(a) Jotiba Phule
(b) Raja Ravi Varma
(c) Vidyasagar
(d) Viresalingam

Q.29: Sociologist ………… elaborates upon the modern context by sketching three aspects to the modern framework of change in colonial India: modes of communication, forms of organisation and the nature of ideas. New technologies have speeded up various forms of communication.
(a) Satish Saberwal
(b) Max Weber
(c) Raja Ram Mohun Roy
(d) Jotiba Phule

Q.30: Who among the following is considered to the father of Indian Renaissance?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Vidyasagar
(c) Jotiba Phule
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.31: The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in ……….. .
(a) July 1945
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1945
(d) August 1946

Q.32: In colonial India the undemocratic and ………… practice of British colonialism contrasted sharply with the vision of freedom which western theories of democracy espoused and which the western educated Indians read about. In modern India, social change is not just about Indian or western ideas. It is a combination as well as reinterpretation of western and Indian ideas.
(a) democratic division
(b) discriminatory administrative
(c) non-discrimination administrative
(d) None of the above

Q.33: Which institution is ultimate interpreter of the constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Attorney General

Q.34: Preamble of Indian Constitution seeks to ensure not only political justice but also
(a) cultural and social justice
(b) economic justice
(c) socio-Economic justice
(d) religious justice

Q.35: According to which Sociologist, party actions are always directed towards a goal which is undertaken in a planned manner?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Robert K. Merton
(c) David Riesman
(d) C. Wright Mill

Q.36: In which regions farmers entered into contracts with MNCs after globalisation in India?
(a) Punjab and Karnataka
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar and Jharkhand

Q.37: Many working poor were tied to landowners in hereditary labour relationship such as which system in Gujarat?
(a) Kalpati
(b) Halpati
(c) None
(d) Hundi

Q.38: The laws that imposed an upper limit on the amount of land that can be owned by a particular family is known as
(a) Abolition of Zamindari system
(b) Tenancy Abolition and Regulation Act
(c) Land Ceiling Act
(d) Rayotwari system

Q.39: In which among the following states farmer suicides have become very common?
(a) Maharashtra and Karnataka
(b) Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Different parts of India
(d) All of the above

Q.40: …………….. is a term that refers to the structure or distribution of landholdings. Access to land forms the rural class structure because agricultural land is the most valuable productive resource in rural areas. What role one plays in the agricultural production
process is largely determined by one’s access to land?
(a) Industrial structure
(b) Agrarian structure
(c) Infrastructure
(d) Urbanisation

Q.41: Sambad Kaumudi in Bengali in the year 1821 was published by
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Swami Vivekananda

Q.42: Who lost their livelihoods due to globalisation?
(a) Spinners and Twisters
(b) Fisherwomen
(c) Gun Collectors
(d) All of these

Q.43: Prepaid cash cards were banned because
(a) it lead to loss of tax.
(b) the government wanted to introduce new technology in India.
(c) criminals could easily escape being caught.
(d) operations were loosing their business.

Q.44: ………….. , systematised and transformed Sanskrit grammar and phonetics around the fourth century BCE. He was of Afghan origin. …The seventh century Chinese scholar Yi Jing learned his Sanskrit in Java (in the city of Shri Vijaya) on his way from China to
India.
(a) Panini
(b) Gautama
(c) Lokmanya
(d) None of these

Q.45: The Times of India was founded at which place in 1861?
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Sindh

Q.46: The movement that radically transform social relation, by capturing power are known as
(a) Reformist movement
(b) Revolutionary movements
(c) Redemptive movement
(d) Satyagraha movement

Q.47: Which among the following is not a form of protest?
(a) Candlelight processions
(b) Satyagraha
(c) Silent march
(d) Writing complaint letters

Q.48: The Adi Dharma Movement was visible in the state of ………….. .
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Delhi

Q.49: The book ‘Reinventing Revolution’ was written by
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Emile Durkheim
(c) Rajni Kothari
(d) Gail Omvedt

Q.50: Dalit literature opposed which system?
(a) Chaturvarna
(b) Trivarna
(c) Nirvana
(d) Ullekha

Answer Key : CUET Sociology Sample Question Paper

1. (a)	2. (a)	3. (d)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (b)	7. (d)	8. (c)	9. (d)	10. (a)
11. (a)	12. (c)	13. (c)	14. (c)	15. (c)	16. (c)	17. (a)	18. (b)	19. (c)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (c)	23. (d)	24. (b)	25. (b)	26. (d)	27. (a)	28. (c)	29. (a)	30. (a)
31. (b)	32. (b)	33. (c)	34. (c)	35. (a)	36. (a)	37. (b)	38. (c)	39. (d)	40. (b)
41. (c)	42. (d)	43. (c)	44. (a)	45. (c)	46. (b)	47. (d)	48. (a)	49. (d)	50. (a)

Thanks for visit and attempt CUET (UG) Sociology sample practice Question Paper. You may find more : CUET Sample Paper Archives

CUET Political Science Practice Mock Test for University Admission Entrance Exam 2024 -2025. Full Question Paper as per new exam pattern and syllabus for online preparation of CUET Exams.

Common University Entrance Test
Section II – Domain Subject : Political Science
Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET Political Science Practice Mock Test

Q.1: Why did India not join either of the two camps i.e. Western alliance or Eastern alliance during the Cold War era?
(a) India was afraid of both the camps.
(b) India was working for a third camp.
(c) India wanted to keep away from both the alliances.
(d) Both the US and the Soviet Union were against India.

Q.2: Which one of the following statements about the Non-Aligned Movement is NOT correct?
(a) There are five founder members of NAM.
(b) The first Non-aligned Summit was held in Belgrade.
(c) NAM became the third superpower.
(d) The first Non-aligned Summit was attended by 25 states.

Q.3: The founder of NAM, Sukarno was from Indonesia, Joseph Broz Tito from ……. and Kwame Nkrumah from …… .
(a) Afganistan and Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia and China
(c) Yugoslavia and Ghana
(d) Indonesia and Ghana

Q.4: Why did Russia become the successor of USSR?
(a) Russia led the formation of CIS
(b) It inherited the Soviet seat in the UN
(c) It was the largest republic
(d) Boris Yeltsin was more charismatic than Gorbachev

Q.5: Why was the ‘First Gulf War’ called the ‘Video Game War’?
(a) Use of military’s in large number.
(b) Use of mass destruction weapons.
(c) Widespread television coverage.
(d) All of the above

Q.6: Which of the following sections or bodies can pose a challenge to US Dominance?
(a) Social Movements
(b) Media and intellectuals
(c) Non-Governmental organizations
(d) All of the above

Q.7: Name the country whose foreign policy did not give much attention to ASEAN during Cold War.
(a) China
(b) Indonesia
(c) India
(d) Thailand

Q.8: Which among the following statement is true?
(a) Iran is a observer country of SAARC.
(b) Russia is the founder country of BRIC.
(c) The Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1949.
(d) Thailand is a member country of ASEAN

Q.9: Which of the following countries has the world’s second-largest number of start-up enterprises?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) Israel
(d) China

Q.10: On what principles, the Constitution of Bangladesh was drafted?
(a) Secularism
(b) Democracy and Socialism
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Communism

Q.11: Which one of the following factors has strengthened relations between India and Sri Lanka?
(a) Ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.
(b) Free trade agreement with Sri Lanka.
(c) India’s peace keeping force.
(d) India’s attitude towards Tamils in Sri-Lanka

Q.12: Which among the following countries is one of India’s largest trading partners among the SAARC countries?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

Q.13: How many founder states signed the UN Charter in 1945?
(a) 45
(b) 51
(c) 52
(d) 56

Q.14: The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) was created by …………… .
(a) UN Development Council
(b) UN Development Group
(c) UN Security Council
(d) UN General Assembly

Q.15: The countries which used WTO to advance its own interest are ……………… .
(a) USA
(b) European Union
(c) Japan
(d) All of these

Q.16: Human rights include
(a) Political rights
(b) Economic rights
(c) Indigenous rights of minorities
(d) All of the above

Q.17: Poverty in South Asia has led to a problem of ……………… .
(a) Migration
(b) Insecurity
(c) Terrorism
(d) Over-population

Q.18: Arrange the following terrorist attacks in sequence.
1. Peshawar School Massacre
2. Kabul School Bombing
3. Brussels Bombing
4. Paris Attacks
Codes
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 1, 3, 2 and 4

Q.19: Global common include Earth’s …………… Antarctica, the ocean floor and the outer space.
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Arctic region
(c) Environment
(d) Lithosphere

Q.20: Which of the following countries is faced with the problem of forest clearing?
(a) Australia
(b) Japan
(c) UK
(d) Mexico

Q.21: When was the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil?
(a) 1972
(b) 1992
(c) 1982
(d) 1994

Q.22: What does the left wing argue about the contemporary globalisation?
(a) Globalisation makes rich richer and poor poorer.
(b) They want a return to self reliance.
(c) Globalisation harms the traditional culture.
(d) All of the above

Q.23: …… is all about who gets what, when, where and how.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privitisation
(c) Resources Geopolitics
(d) Liberalisation

Q.24: Where was the latest WSF meeting held?
(a) USA
(b) Sweden
(c) India
(d) Brazil

Q.25: Muslim population in India in 1951 was …………
(a) 15%
(b) 12%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%

Q.26: The accession of which princely states was resolved after plebiscite that confirmed people’s desire to join India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Junagarh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kashmir

Q.27: Choose the one which was NOT a Princely State of British India?
(a) Mysore
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bombay
(d) Manipur

Q.28: Who drafted the first five year plan?
(a) K C Negoy
(b) T T Krishnamachari
(c) K N Raj
(d) J C Kumarappa

Q.29: Who among the following is the ex-offio chairperson of NITI Aayog?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Vice President of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India

Q.30: National Development Council was set up on ……………… .
(a) 6th August, 1950
(b) 6th August, 1951
(c) 6th August, 1952
(d) 6ht August, 1953

Q.31: In which year Panchsheel was signed ?
(a) 1955
(b) 1956
(c) 1954
(d) 1950

Q.32: When did the formal diplomatic relations developed between India and Israel?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

Q.33: A 20-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship of India with the Soviet Union was signed in …………
(a) August, 1965
(b) August, 1967
(c) August, 1971
(d) August 1972

Q.34: Which party dominated the first three general elections?
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Bhartiya Jana Sangh
(d) Socialist Party

Q.35: India is an example of ………… coalition system.
(a) One-party
(b) Bi-party
(c) Tri-party
(d) Multi-party

Q.36: A group of powerful and influential leaders within the Congress were known as …………, led by K Kamraj.
(a) Extremists
(b) Syndicate
(c) Moderates
(d) Swarajists

Q.37: What kind of special powers to the government are provided by the Indian Constitution during an emergency?
(a) Press censorship
(b) Powers are concentrated with the Union Government
(c) Government has the power to restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.38: Mention the main constituents of Janata Party.
(a) Congress (O)
(b) Bhartiya Jana Sangh
(c) Bhartiya Lok Dal, Socialist Party
(d) All of the above

Q.39: Which of the following aspects were opposed by Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya?
(a) Marxist Socialism
(b) Western Capitalism
(c) Decentralization
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.40: What is the full form of BKU?
(a) Bharath kalyan union
(b) Bharatiya kisan union
(c) Bharat kisan unnati
(d) None of these

Q.41: Where was the movement called Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangh then started?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q.42: The National Rehabilitation Policy formed by the government in 2003 can be seen as an achievement of the movements like …………
(a) MKSS
(b) NBA
(c) BKU
(d) NFF

Q.43: Jammu and Kashmir was ruled by Hindu ruler ………
(a) Jai Singh
(b) Hari Singh
(c) Rawal Singh
(d) Sangram Singh

Q.44: The ………… was formed in 1920 as the political wing of the Sikhs.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Punjabi Suba
(c) Akali Dal
(d) None of these

Q.45: Which movement used democratic means like public debates and the electoral platform to achieve its end?
(a) Akali movement
(b) Dravidian movement
(c) Secessionist movement
(d) J&K movement

Q.46: What does Hindutva mean?
(a) It means Hinduness
(b) It was based on Indian nationhood
(c) It means everyone must accept India not only as their fatherland but also as their holyland
(d) All of the above

Q.47: Bhartiya Janata Party is rebirth of which of the following political party?
(a) Bhartiya Jana Sangh
(b) Bahujan samaj party
(c) Samajwadi party
(d) Shiv sena

Q.48: Which of the following were the main agendas of General election of 2009 by UPA-II?
(i) Employment Generation
(ii) Social Equity
(iii) Poverty reduction
(iv) Laws on Population control
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Only (iv)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

Q.49: When Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2009

Q.50: Jayaprakash Narayan has defined Total Revolution as a combination of …………revolutions.
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight

Answer Key : CUET Political Science Mock Test

1. (c)	2. (c)	3. (c)	4. (b)	5. (c)	6. (d)	7. (c)	8. (c)	9. (c)	10. (c)
11. (b)	12. (b)	13. (b)	14. (d)	15. (d)	16. (d)	17. (a)	18. (c)	19. (a)	20. (d)
21. (b)	22. (a)	23. (c)	24. (d)	25. (b)	26. (b)	27. (c)	28. (c)	29. (c)	30. (c)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (b)	35. (d)	36. (b)	37. (d)	38. (d)	39. (d)	40. (b)
41. (b)	42. (b)	43. (b)	44. (c)	45. (b)	46. (d)	47. (a)	48. (a)	49. (c)	50. (c)

You may find more CUET Political Science Mock Test at : CUET Sample Paper Archives

CUET (UG) Political Science Sample Paper of 50 MCQ questions. Polity practice set for online preparation of upcoming 2024 -2025 admission entrance exam.

Exam Name : CUET (UG)
Subject : Political Science
Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET Political Science Practice Sample Paper

Q.1: The Western Alliance headed by US represented the ideology of ………… .
(a) Capitalism
(b) Liberal Democracy
(c) Socialism and Communism
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.2: Choose the correct option regarding the Cuban Missile Crisis.
(a) In 1962, nuclear missiles were placed in Cuba.
(b) The installation of nuclear weapons put US under threat.
(c) USSR wanted a full scale war between the two countries.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.3: Which one of the following is the correct full form of CTBT?
(a) Correct Test Ban Theory
(b) Complete Test Ban Treaty
(c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(d) Comprehensive Total Ban Theory

Q.4: The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) came into being after the Socialist Revolution in Russia in
(a) 1914
(b) 1917
(c) 1939
(d) 1991

Q.5: Shock Therapy is a phenomenon associated with ………………. .
(a) Central Asian conflicts in Tajikistan and Azerbaijan
(b) New International Economic Order
(c) US plans to root out communism
(d) Stabilising the Russian currency against the US dollar

Q.6: The Arab Spring was a struggle against which of the following aspects?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Corruption
(c) Poverty
(d) All of these

Q.7: Name the countries which resisted Maastricht Treaty.
(a)Britain and France
(b) France and USA
(c) Germany and Britain
(d) Denmark and Sweden

Q.8: Which of the following country is NOT a member of BRICS?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) South Africa
(d) Sri Lanka

Q.9: The 13th conference of BRICS in June 2021 was held in which of the following countries?
(a) Russia
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Brazil

Q.10: When Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2009

Q.11: Which one pair of countries from the following is held together because of common natural resources, electricity generation and interlocking water management grids?
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Sri Lanka
(d) India and Myanmar

Q.12: Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Sheikh Mujib was assassinated in the year 1975.
(b) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto was removed by General Zia-ul-Haq in 1977.
(c) Let. Gen. HM Ershad step down in Bangladesh in 1990.
(d) General Parwez Musharraf removed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif in 2000.

Q.13: The main objective of the United Nations is to
(a) control the big powers to exploit small countries.
(b) check population growth
(c) prevent international conflicts
(d) manufacture medicines

Q.14: The Headquarter of UNESCO is located in ……… .
(a) Paris
(b) Geneva
(c) Italy
(d) Netherlands

Q.15: Which organisation is the only ‘Tripartite agency’?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) UNESCO

Q.16: On which the non-traditional concept of security focus on?
(a) Human Security
(b) Global Security
(c) Defence
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.17: Which of the following is a source of insecurity?
(a) Human Rights
(b) Balance of Power
(c) Global Poverty
(d) Alliance Building

Q.18: Human Security is about the protection of people more than the protection of …………
(a) values
(b) regions
(c) religions
(d) states

Q.19: Which one of the following agency of UN is related to Environmental issues?
(a) UNDP
(b) UNEP
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNHRC

Q.20: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about UNFCCC.
(a) It provides that parties should act to protect the climate system.
(b) It should be on the basis of equity.
(c) It is an international environment treaty adopted in 1992.
(d) All of the above

Q.21: The purpose of the COP was to
(a) Stabilise concentration of greenhouse gases
(b) Prevent rise of global temperature
(c) Conserve resources
(d) All of the above

Q.22: The process of integration of different countries is called
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of these

Q.23: Erosion of state capacity is related to ………….. globalisation.
(a) Economical
(b) Cultural
(c) Social
(d) Political

Q.24: According to the right wing, people will lose their age old …………… because of globalisation.
(a) money
(b) ideas
(c) values
(d) power

Q.25: Which of the following challenges were faced by India after independence?
(a) Accommodation and unity
(b) Establishing Democracy
(c) Development and well-being
(d) All of the above

Q.26: Who delivered the famous speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.27: Which of the following states initially refused to join the Indian Union?
(a) Manipur
(b) Kashmir
(c) Punjab
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.28: Why did India adopt planning?
(a) To bring socio-economic changes.
(b) To provide controlled and faster growth rate.
(c) To resolve contradictions between societies.
(d) All of the above

Q.29: What was the main focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Education
(d) Transportation

Q.30: Which of the following is/are correct about NITI Aayog?
(a) It was established on 1st January, 2015.
(b) It is a policy making think tank of government.
(c) It provides strategic and technical advice to the Central and State Government.
(d) All of the above

Q.31: Which one of the following is not a part of India’s Foreign Policy?
(a) Policy of Non-alignment
(b) Respect for SAARC
(c) Respect for unipolar world
(d) Respect for peaceful co-existence

Q.32: In which year, China annexed Tibet which removed a historical buffer between two countries?
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1952

Q.33: When did India opposed the indefinite extension of NPT?
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997

Q.34: What percent of voters were literate during the formation of election commission?
(a) Only 7 percent
(b) Only 20 percent
(c) Only 11 percent
(d) Only 15 percent

Q.35: Which party was formed after the Nagpur Resolution of the Congress?
(a) Socialist Party
(b) Bhartiya Jana Party
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Swatantra Party

Q.36: Which of the following political parties in contemporary India trace their origin to the Socialist Party?
(a) Samyukta Socialist Party
(b) Samajwadi Party
(c) Janta Dal (Secular)
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.37: Name the leaders who founded the Communist Party of India (Marxist Leninist).
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) George Fernandes
(c) Charu Majumdar
(d) P Sundarayya

Q.38: As per the Shah Commission how many people were arrested under the Preventive detention laws during Emergency?
(a) Ten thousand
(b) Fifty thousand
(c) One lakh eleven thousand
(d) Two lakh

Q.39: Which of the following party was supported by Ram Manohar Lohia?
(a) Party of People
(b) Party of Liberty
(c) Party of Socialism
(d) Party of Democracy

Q.40: The old social movements revolved around …………
(a) Politics
(b) Lifestyle
(c) Culture
(d) Justice

Q.41: Chipko Movement is an example of ………… movements.
(a) Women’s
(b) Worker’s
(c) Ecological
(d) Farmer’s

Q.42: Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan took the initiative in demanding records of ………… work.
(a) Famine relief
(b) Food distribution
(c) Poverty elimination
(d) Forest conservation

Q.43: Jammu and Kashmir had special status under which article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 225
(b) Article 366
(c) Article 370
(d) Article 371

Q.44: Which of the following can be considered as the role of congress in the politics of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) The Congress gained direct control over the government in state.
(b) National Conference remained iconic power with the active support of Congress.
(c) Congress party also made attempts to have agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and Government of India.
(d) All of the above

Q.45: Punjab Accord was signed in ……… .
(a) 1982
(b) 1980
(c) 1984
(d) 1985

Q.46: Who had recommended reservation for OBCs in jobs of Central Government?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mandal Commission

Q.47: Who headed the central government in India after 1998 parliamentary elections?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) P V Narsimha Rao
(c) H D Deve Gowda
(d) I K Gujral

Q.48: Who supported the United Front Government?
(a) BJP
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Congress
(d) NDA

Q.49: Which among the following countries is one of the India’s largest trading partners among the SAARC countries?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

Q.50: Which political party dominated the First three general elections?
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Bhartiya Jana Sangh
(d) Socialist Party

Answer Key : CUET Political Science Sample Paper

1. (d)	2. (d)	3. (c)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (d)	7. (d)	8. (d)	9. (c)	10. (c)
11. (a)	12. (d)	13. (c)	14. (a)	15. (c)	16. (d)	17. (c)	18. (d)	19. (b)	20. (d)
21. (a)	22. (b)	23. (d)	24. (c)	25. (d)	26. (b)	27. (d)	28. (d)	29. (b)	30. (d)
31. (c)	32. (b)	33. (b)	34. (d)	35. (d)	36. (d)	37. (c)	38. (c)	39. (c)	40. (a)
41. (c)	42. (a)	43. (c)	44. (d)	45. (d)	46. (d)	47. (a)	48. (c)	49. (b)	50. (b)

Thanks for attempt CUET Political Science Sample Paper.

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Common University Entrance Test for admission in Under Graduate Courses : CUET (UG) Geography sample Mock Test for online practice. Geography MCQ Questions with answers as per latest exam pattern.

Exam : CUET (UG)
Section II : Domain Subject
Subject : Geography
Time : 45 Minutes
Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50

CUET (UG) Mock Test : Geography

Q.1: Griffith Taylor popularised which of the following ideas/concepts?
(a) Possibilism
(b) Determinism
(c) Neo-determinism
(d) Areal differentiation

Q.2: Which of the following is the sub-field of Social geography?
(a) Geography of Leisure
(b) Geography of Resources
(c) Geography of Tourism
(d) Geography of Agriculture

Q.3: What does areal differentiation implies?
(a) Elaborate description of region
(b) Exploration of new areas
(c) Identification of any uniqueness of any region
(d) Use of computers

Q.4: Which of these is a major cause of female migration in India?
(a) Education
(b) Marriage
(c) Movement Rate
(d) Searching for employment

Q.5: The ratio between the number of people to the size of land is known as ……… .
(a) population distribution
(b) population density
(c) population growth
(d) crude birth rate

Q.6: Which of the following countries is in the first stage of Demographic transition?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Peru
(d) Canada

Q.7: The productive group of population covers people of which of the following age group?
(a) 0-15 years
(b) 16-64 years
(c) 15-59 years
(d) 60-65 years

Q.8: Which type of population pyramid shows a bell shape?
(a) Expanding population
(b) Constant population
(c) Declining population
(d) None of the above

Q.9: What does the high proportion of young population implies?
(a) Low birth rate
(b) High birth rate
(c) Low death rate
(d) High death rate

Q.10: The most important aspects of human lives are
(a) Access to health
(b) Access to education
(c) Access to Resources
(d) All of these

Q.11: Development of a few regions by individuals brought about in a short span of time leads to
(a) Malnutrition
(b) Poverty
(c) Ecological degradation
(d) All of these

Q.12: Which of the following is not a pillar of Human Development?
(a) Equity
(b) Productivity
(c) Equality
(d) Sustainability

Q.13: Plantation agriculture was developed by
(a) Europeans
(b) Asians
(c) Africans
(d) Americans

Q.14: Which of the following is not a characteristic of dairy farming practised in the world?
(a) Veterinary services
(b) Labour intensive
(c) Cattle breeding
(d) Practised near rural areas

Q.15: Which of the following Tribes do not practice transhumance?
(a) Gujjars
(b) Bakarwals
(c) Gaddis
(d) Bhils

Q.16: Which type of cotton textile industry is highly labour intensive?
(a) Powerloom
(b) Mills
(c) Handloom
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.17: When many industries are concentrated in a particular region to share factors of production, it is termed as ………………. .
(a) flexibility
(b) joint sector
(c) proffesionalisation
(d) agglomeration economies

Q.18: Dortmund, Dusseldorf and Essen industrial area is located in which European country?
(a) Spain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Italy

Q.19: Which of the following will not be included under services?
(a) Financial banking
(b) Insurance
(c) Rural market
(d) Housekeeping

Q.20: What does ‘KPO’ stands for?
(a) Knowledge Professional Outsource
(b) Knowledge Processing Outsource
(c) Knowledge Programmed Output
(d) None of the above

Q.21: Rohini satellite was launched in the year
(a) 1960
(b) 1980
(c) 2001
(d) 2010

Q.22: Which river supplies freshwater to the Suez canal?
(a) Amazon
(b) Nile
(c) Congo
(d) Murray

Q.23: Which of the following is a member state of Latin American Integration Association (LAIA)?
(a) Sweden
(b) Bolivia
(c) Hungary
(d) Belarus

Q.24: Which of the following is not a Entrepot Port?
(a) Copenhagen
(b) Rotterdam
(c) Singapore
(d) Dover

Q.25: The city of Canberra was planned by
(a) Daniel Burnham
(b) Walter Burley Griffin
(c) Louis Kahn
(d) Renzo Piano

Q.26: Arrange the following Mega cities in terms of their population (largest to smallest) and choose the correct option.
1. London
2. Tokyo
3. Mumbai
4. Beijing
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Q.27: Which of the following is associated to adolescent population?
(a) Lower age at marriage
(b) Illiteracy, particularly female illiteracy
(c) Low intake of nutrients
(d) All of the above

Q.28: What is the population density of Arunachal Pradesh as per census 2011?
(a) 47
(b) 38
(c) 17
(d) 12

Q.29: Which of the following regions acts as a magnet to pull emigrants from India?
(a) Middle East
(b) Western Europe
(c) America
(d) All of these

Q.30: Which year onwards, the third wave of migration started in which doctors, engineers, financial experts migrated to countries like Canada, UK and USA?
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1980

Q.31: India’s Human Development Index is released by which Organisation/Ministry?
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Ministry of Social Justice
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of HRD

Q.32: What are the consequences of imbalanced development?
(a) Decline in social capabilities
(b) Decline in environmental capabilities
(c) Decline in personal capabilities
(d) All of the above

Q.33: Semi-clustered settlements are formed in India at which of these places?
(a) Bundelkhand region
(b) Gujarat plains
(c) Nagaland
(d) Himalayan slopes

Q.34: Which of the following factor is responsible for development of a compact settlement in the Rajasthan region?
(a) High temperature
(b) Hot winds
(c) Water resources
(d) All of these

Q.35: Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Wind erosion
(c) Salinisation of soils
(d) Siltation of land

Q.36: Cucumber is a crop of
(a) Rabi season
(b) Kharif season
(c) Zaid season
(d) both (a) and (b)

Q.37: The Neeru-Meeru water harvesting programme was launched in …………. .
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Haryana

Q.38: The Central Pollution Control Board [CPCB] was established in the year
(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1974
(d) 1976

Q.39: Which one of the following minerals is known as brown diamond?
(a) Iron
(b) Lignite
(c) Manganese
(d) Mica

Q.40: Which of the following are sources of Non-convectional energy?
(a) Solar
(b) Wind
(c) Bio-energy
(d) All of these

Q.41: The Bokaro steel plant was setup with collaboration with which of these countries
(a) Germany
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Russia

Q.42: The first Cotton Mill was setup in 1854 in which city?
(a) Surat
(b) Calcutta
(c) Mumbai
(d) Madras

Q.43: Which one of the following is the most crucial factor for sustainable development in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area?
(a) Agricultural development
(b) Eco-development
(c) Transport development
(d) Colonisation of land

Q.44: Which of the following has been a negative effect of Indira Gandhi canal?
(a) Decreasing soil moisture
(b) Deforestation
(c) Water salinity
(d) All of the above

Q.45: The National Waterway II lies on which river in India?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Chambal

Q.46: Satellite data can be used for which of the following purposes?
(a) Weather forecasting
(b) Monitoring natural disasters
(c) Surveillance in strategic areas
(d) All of the above

Q.47: Which of the following is a satellite port of Chennai port?
(a) Kolkata port
(b) Haldia port
(c) Tuticorin port
(d) Paradwip port

Q.48: Which of the following ports have been arranged correctly from North to South?
(a) Kolkata, Paradwip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai
(b) Chennai, Kolkata, Paradwip, Visakhapatnam
(c) Kolkata, Chennai, Paradwip, Visakhapatnam
(d) Chennai, Paradwip, Visakhapatnam, Kolkata

Q.49: Which of the following wastelands have been primarily formed by natural agents?
(a) Barren rocky areas
(b) Desertic sands
(c) Steep sloping land
(d) All of these

Q.50: Push and pull factors are responsible for
(a) Migration
(b) Land degradation
(c) Slums
(d) Air pollution

Answer Key : CUET Geography Mock Test

1. (c)	2. (a)	3. (c)	4. (b)	5. (b)	6. (a)	7. (c)	8. (b)	9. (b)	10. (d)
11. (d)	12. (c)	13. (a)	14. (d)	15. (d)	16. (c)	17. (d)	18. (c)	19. (c)	20. (b)
21. (b)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (d)	25. (b)	26. (b)	27. (d)	28. (c)	29. (d)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (d)	33. (b)	34. (c)	35. (c)	36. (c)	37. (c)	38. (c)	39. (b)	40. (d)
41. (d)	42. (c)	43. (b)	44. (c)	45. (c)	46. (d)	47. (c)	48. (a)	49. (d)	50. (a)

Thanks for attempt CUET Geography Mock Test for UG admission entrance Exam in academic session 2024 -2025.

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CUET (UG) Geography Sample Question Paper for admission in academic year 2024-2025. Practice Sample test of domain subject Geography is as per latest exam pattern.

Exam : CUET (UG)
Subject : Geography
Questions : Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET (UG) Sample Question Paper : Geography

Q.1: ‘‘Humans are restricted by the constraints of the natural environment.’’ This idea can be described as
(a) environmental determinism
(b) neo-liberalism
(c) possibilism
(d) spatial analysis

Q.2: ‘The Radical School of Geography’ was influenced by which of the following?
(a) Marxian Theory
(b) Kant’s Theory
(c) Gandhian Philosophy
(d) None of these

Q.3: Health resorts on high lands, ports on the coasts, and satellites in the space, are termed as which type of interaction?
(a) Possibilism
(b) Neo-determinism
(c) Environmental Determinism
(d) Naturalisation of Humans

Q.4: Which of the following is the main characteristic of the stage-I of Demographic Transition Theory?
(a) High fluctuating fertility and high mortality rate
(b) Time of population explosion
(c) Decline in fertility and mortality rate
(d) All of the above

Q.5: Which is the most populous continent?
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) Asia

Q.6: Which of the following areas / regions are characterized by very less density of population?
(a) Asia
(b) Arabian Desert
(c) South-East Asi
(d) North-West Europe

Q.7: Which of the following is not a reason of unfavourable sex ratio against women?
(a) Gender discrimination
(b) Domestic violence
(c) Female infanticide
(d) Marriage

Q.8: Which group is known as productive group?
(a) Young population
(b) Working population
(c) Ageing population
(d) None of the above

Q.9: The dependent population of a country covers which of these age groups
(a) 0-15 years
(b) 15-59 years
(c) 59 years and above
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.10: Which of the following is not a pillar of human development?
(a) Equity
(b) Equality
(c) Sustainability
(d) Empowerment

Q.11: The ……… is chosen as an indicator to assess health in Human development.
(a) purchasing power
(b) knowledge
(c) vaccination level
(d) life expectancy

Q.12: Which pillar of Human Development stresses on opportunities for future generations?
(a) Equity
(b) Empowerment
(c) Sustainability
(d) Productivity

Q.13: In the Arctic and Sub-Arctic areas, which of the following animal is reared by the Nomads?
(a) Yak
(b) Reindeer
(c) Llamas
(d) Horde

Q.14: Which of the following is an economic factor determining the profitability of mining activities?
(a) Technology available for use of mineral
(b) Size of deposit
(c) Grade of deposit
(d) Occurrence of deposit

Q.15: Due to which reason Mediterranean region has remained one of the most favourable places to live since human history?
(a) Industrial development
(b) Fertile soil
(c) Transport facilities
(d) Pleasant climate

Q.16: Which of the following is a basic industry?
(a) Aircraft industry
(b) Iron industry
(c) Television industry
(d) All of the above

Q.17: Modern manufacturing is distinguished by-
1. Complex technology
2. Division of labour
3. Specialisation
4. Small capital investment
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q.18: Which of the following is/are examples of Smokestack industries?
(a) Metal smelting industries
(b) Heavy engineering industries
(c) Chemical manufacturing industries
(d) All of the above

Q.19: Which of the following is an example of mass media?
(a) Television
(b) Newspaper
(c) Radio
(d) All of these

Q.20: What percentage of total GDP of the world is generated by tourism sector?
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%

Q.21: The Trans-Canadian highway connects
(a) Edmonton to Anchorage
(b) Vancouver to St. John’s city
(c) Edmonton to Vancouver
(d) Vancouver to Anchorage

Q.22: The First Public railway line was opened in 1825 between which cities of England?
(a) Stockton and Darlington
(b) London to Wales
(c) Birmingham to Stockton
(d) Edgbasten to London

Q.23: Mannheim and Duisburg ports are located on which river?
(a) Rhine
(b) Danube
(c) Hughli
(d) Mississippi

Q.24: The silk route had a length of …………. km connecting Rome and China.
(a) 2000 km
(b) 6000 km
(c) 60,000 km
(d) 1200 km

Q.25: Linear pattern of rural settlements are found at which of these places?
(a) On a mountain top
(b) Along a railway line
(c) Where two roads meet a third road
(d) In river valleys

Q.26: What is the capital of Ethiopia?
(a) Baku
(b) Ulan bator
(c) Addis Ababa
(d) Mogadishu

Q.27: Which of the following forms the component of a nation?
(a) Population of a country
(b) Resources of a country
(c) Economy of a country
(d) All of these

Q.28: What percentage of total population does Uttarakhand share
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 1%
(d) Less than 1%

Q.29: Women mainly migrate in India on the account of
(a) work
(b) employment
(c) marriage
(d) education

Q.30: Among the Urban Agglomeration [UA], which plan has received the higher number of in – migrants?
(a) Greater Mumbai
(b) Greater Noida
(c) Delhi
(d) Banglore

Q.31: Which of the following section of the society are included under marginalised section?
(a) Scheduled Caste
(b) Scheduled Tribe
(c) Landless Labourers
(d) All of these

Q.32: What is India’s rank in 2019 Human Development Index.
(a) 129
(b) 130
(c) 131
(d) 132

Q.33: Palli and nagla belong to which one of the following rural settlements?
(a) Dispersed settlements
(b) Hamleted settlements
(c) Clustered settlements
(d) Semi-clustered settlements

Q.34: Isolated huts are the example of
(a) Hamleted settlemets
(b) Dispersed settlements
(c) Fragmented settlements
(d) Clustered settlements

Q.35: Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in which category of land use?
(a) Current fallow
(b) Culturable wasteland
(c) Net sown area
(d) Fallow other then current fallow

Q.36: More than 54% of total cropped area in India is occupied by
(a) Cereals
(b) Pulses
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Fibre crops

Q.37: Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in the country?
(a) The Indus
(b) The Brahmaputra
(c) The Ganga
(d) The Godavari

Q.38: What percentage of total water resources is fresh water?
(a) 3%
(b) 5%
(c) 2%
(d) 1%

Q.39: Uranium deposits are found in which rock system in India?
(a) Cuddapah
(b) Gondwana
(c) Dharwar
(d) All of these

Q.40: High quality mica is produced in lower …………. plateau in Jharkhand.
(a) Malwa
(b) Hazaribagh
(c) Chhotanagpur
(d) Bastar

Q.41: The TISCO integrated steel plant gets iron-ore from which of these region?
(a) Jharia
(b) Kendujhar
(c) Noamundi
(d) Joda

Q.42: Which one of the following is the second largest producer of sugar?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu

Q.43: The Hill Area Development Programme was started during which of the following Five Year Plans?
(a) Sixth Five Year Plan
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Fourth Five Year Plan
(d) Eight Five Year Plan

Q.44: Which of the following is a key pillar of Sustainable development?
(a) Discrimination
(b) Poverty
(c) Education
(d) Equity

Q.45: Which of the following constitute the maximum length of roads in India?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) District Roads
(d) Rural Roads

Q.46: In which of the following year, the first radio programme was broadcast?
(a) 1911
(b) 1936
(c) 1927
(d) 1923

Q.47: Which of the following is an inland port?
(a) Kochchi port
(b) Ennore port
(c) Haldia port
(d) Kolkata port

Q.48: Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through:
(a) Land and sea
(b) Land and air
(c) Sea and air
(d) Sea

Q.49: Which of these activities are the most significant contributor to water pollution?
(a) Households
(b) Farms
(c) Industries
(d) Tourism

Q.50: In which of the following states is the Dharavi stream located?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Rajasthan

Answer Key : CUET Geography Question Paper

1. (a)	2. (a)	3. (a)	4. (a)	5. (d)	6. (b)	7. (d)	8. (b)	9. (d)	10. (b)
11. (d)	12. (c)	13. (b)	14. (a)	15. (d)	16. (b)	17. (c)	18. (d)	19. (d)	20. (a)
21. (b)	22. (a)	23. (a)	24. (b)	25. (b)	26. (c)	27. (d)	28. (d)	29. (c)	30. (a)
31. (d)	32. (a)	33. (b)	34. (b)	35. (b)	36. (a)	37. (c)	38. (a)	39. (c)	40. (b)
41. (c)	42. (b)	43. (b)	44. (d)	45. (d)	46. (d)	47. (d)	48. (c)	49. (c)	50. (c)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) Geography Sample Question Paper.

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CUET History Mock Test for 2024 -2025 UG admission entrance exam. Free online practice set of History questions as per latest exam pattern.

Exam : CUET (UG)
Subject : History
Instruction : Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

CUET (UG) Mock Practice Test : History

Q.1: What is unique about Nageshwar and Balakot sites of the Harappan culture?
(a) They are both near the coast.
(b) Now they are in Pakistan.
(c) Both were specialised centres for making metal tools.
(d) All of the above

Q.2: During Harappan period, Khetri (Rajasthan) was associated with
(a) Blue stone
(b) Shells
(c) Copper
(d) Gold

Q.3: Consider the following statements regarding Harappan Civilisation.
(i) The Harappans ate plants and animal products.
(ii) Evidence of a ploughed field was found at Banawali.
(iii) Chanhudaro is a small town which was famous for crafts production.
(iv) Bones of deer and gharial are also found. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these.

Q.4: Who was the founder of Mauryan Empire?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Asoka
(c) Bindusara
(d) Bimbisara

Q.5: Organisations of craft producers and merchants were known as
(a) Guilds
(b) Shrenis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.6: Land grants during the rule of Chandragupta II provide some insight into the relationship between which of the following parties?
(a) Artisans and hunter-gatherers
(b) Fishermen and samantas
(c) Pastoralists and officials
(d) The state and cultivators

Q.7: Dharmasutras was compiled in
(a) Pali
(b) Hindi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Brahmi

Q.8: The Shungas and Kanvas, the immediate successors of the Mauryas, were ……… .
(a) Brahmanas
(b) Kshatriyas
(c) of ‘low’ origin
(d) mlechchhas

Q.9: Who excavated the site Hastinapur in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Daya Ram Sahni
(b) Rakhal Das Banerji
(c) BB Lal
(d) John Marshall

Q.10: Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Sutta Pitaka contains teachings of Buddha.
(b) Vinaya Pitaka deals with philosophical matters.
(c) Abhidhamma Pitaka contains rules and regulations for Sangha.
(d) Dipavamsa contain histories of Jainism.

Q.11: What was the balcony like structure in a stupa called?
(a) Anda
(b) Harmika
(c) Yashti
(d) Chhatri

Q.12: A tall structure built over the central shrine is called
(a) Garbhagriha
(b) Shikhara
(c) Gopuram
(d) None of these

Q.13: Which of the following is related to the Al-Biruni’s concept of pollution ?
(a) Concept of energy generation
(b) Sustainable development
(c) Destroying tree cover of earth
(d) Concept of social pollution

Q.14: Francois Bernier came to Mughal Empire in search of
(a) thief
(b) opportunities
(c) judicial remedy
(d) medical facility

Q.15: Francois Bernier was a doctor, political philosopher and historian from
(a) America
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Portugal

Q.16: Historians of religion classify bhakti traditions into two broad categories …… and ……. . Select the correct answer.
(a) Sagun and Vigun
(b) Sagun and Nirgun
(c) Nirgun and Sarvagun
(d) None of the above

Q.17: The verses of Baba Farid were incorporated in
(a) Bijak
(b) Guru Granth Sahib
(c) Quran
(d) None of these

Q.18: Arranged them in chronological order.
(i) Kabir
(ii) Mirabai
(iii) Guru Nanak
(iv) Shankaradeva

Q.19: ‘Amuktamalyada’, a book on statecraft was written by
(a) Rama Raya
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Harihara
(d) Bukka

Q.20: Gajapati rulers rules which of the following state?
(a) Orissa
(b) Deccan states
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Q.21: Hampi was recognised as a site of National importance in
(a) 1955
(b)1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1988

Q.22: The average peasant of North India possess more than
(a) a pair of bullocks
(b) two ploughs
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) 6 acres land

Q.23: Which of the following lands is annually cultivated for each crop in succession?
(a) Banjar
(b) Parauti
(c) Chachar
(d) Polaj

Q.24: Arrange the following in sequence
(i) Bahadur Shah
(ii) Nadir Shah
(iii) Ahmad Shah Abdali
(iv) Reign of Jahangir
Codes
(a) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii).

Q.25: Who composed ‘Akbarnama’?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Tansen
(c) Birbal
(d) Jahanara

Q.26: Who was the wazir during Shah Jahan’s reign?
(a) Sadullah Khan
(b) Abu’l Fazl
(c) Mir Sayyid Ali
(d) Abu’l Hasan

Q.27: Who built Ibadatkhana?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Humayun
(d) Shahjahan

Q.28: Zamindars were responsible for
(a) extraction of minerals from the hills.
(b) cotton trade with the British.
(c) maintaining bahi khatas for the British.
(d) paying revenue to the British.

Q.29: To save their property, whom did the zamindar transferred it to?
(a) Children
(b) Servants
(c) Women
(d) None of these

Q.30: What did Buchanan searched for?
(a) Mineral
(b) Iron ore
(c) Mica
(d) All of these

Q.31: Who led the Revolt of 1857 from Delhi?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Bahadur Shah
(c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(d) None of these

Q.32: Laws related to abolishing customs of Sati was passed in the year ……..
(a) 1832
(b) 1875
(c) 1829
(d) 1825

Q.33: Consider the following statements regarding revolt of 1857.
I. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah was declared as the leader of sepoys.
II. There was no participation of common people.
III. Moneylenders and the rich were attacked. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III

Q.34: Battle of Plassey was fought in
(a) 1764
(b) 1757
(c) 1857
(d) 1864

Q.35: Which of the following was important centre of imperial administration during Mughal rule?
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Agra
(d) Madras

Q.36: After 1850s, European owned jute mills were established at
(a) Madras
(b) Bombay
(c) Kanpur
(d) Calcutta

Q.37: The Lottery Committee was made
(a) To develop Calcutta
(b) To develop Bombay
(c) To develop Madras
(d) To develop Delhi

Q.38: Mahatma Gandhi for the first time experimented with Satyagraha in ……… .
(a) Britain
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) Africa

Q.39: Which movement was took place in 1917?
(a) Kheda Movement
(b) Ahmedabad Mill Strike
(c) Champaran Satyagraha
(d) All of these

Q.40: Gandhi-Irwin Pact was singned in
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933

Q.41: A separate electorate was given to the muslim in
(a) 1892
(b) 1909
(c) 1919
(d) 1935

Q.42: Who was known as Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam
(b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Nawab Salimullah
(d) Sheikh Abdullah

Q.43: Pakistan was formed on
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 14th August, 1947
(c) 15th November, 1948
(d) 16th August, 1947

Q.44: Who introduced the crucial ‘Objective Resolution in Constituent Assembly’?
(a) BR Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) KM Munshi

Q.45: Who represented ‘Tribals’ in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jaipal Singh
(b) Buddhu Bhagat
(c) BR Ambedkar
(d) NG Ranga

Q.46: Which of the following leader felt that the use of Hindi language as the language of Constitution?
(a) RV Dhulekar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jaipal Singh
(d) Rajendra Prasad

Q.47: Hindustani language is blend of
(a) Hindi-Urdu
(b) Hindi-Persian
(c) Hindi-Arabic
(d) Hindi-Sanskrit

Q.48: Who was successor of Babur?
(a) Akbar
(b) Humanyun
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Jahangir

Q.49: Ain-i-Akbari authored by Abul Fazl during the reign of
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Akbar
(c) Humayun
(d) Shahjahan

Q.50: New tradition of Buddhism was called as
(a) Shwetambar
(b) Digambar
(e) Hinayana
(d) Mahayana

Answer Key : CUET History Mock Test

1. (a)	2. (c)	3. (c)	4. (a)	5. (c)	6. (d)	7. (c)	8. (a)	9. (c)	10. (a)
11. (b)	12. (b)	13. (d)	14. (b)	15. (b)	16. (b)	17. (b)	18. (a)	19. (b)	20. (a)
21. (b)	22. (c)	23. (d)	24. (a)	25. (a)	26. (a)	27. (a)	28. (d)	29. (c)	30. (d)
31. (b)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (b)	35. (c)	36. (d)	37. (a)	38. (c)	39. (c)	40. (b)
41. (b)	42. (b)	43. (b)	44. (b)	45. (a)	46. (a)	47. (a)	48. (b)	49. (b)	50. (d)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) History Mock Test for the admission in academic session 2024-2025.

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