SSC CPO Mock Test in Hindi for free online practice. 200 Questions from Reasoning, GK, English and Maths. CAPFs Sub Inspector Practice set from the previous year exam question paper is very useful to check your preparation level.
SSC CPO Mock Exam
Staff Selection Commission conduct Central Police Organization (SSC CPO) exam. It is an annual competitive examination conducted to recruit candidates for various posts in CPOs like the Sub-Inspector (SI) in Delhi Police, Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) such as Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
The SSC CPO exam consists of two papers: Paper-I and Paper-II.
Paper-I: It is an objective type exam comprising four sections: General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Knowledge and General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension. Each section carries 50 marks, making a total of 200 marks. The duration of Paper-I is 2 hours.
Paper-II: It is also an objective type exam containing English language and comprehension questions. It carries 200 marks with a duration of 2 hours.
Exam Pattern :
Total Time : 120 Minutes Total Questions : 200 General Intelligence and Reasoning : 50 Questions General Knowledge and General Awareness : 50 Questions Quantitative Aptitude : 50 Questions English comprehension : 50 Questions
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Mock Test : SSC CPO Paper 1 in Hindi Questions : 200 Time : 120 Minutes
SSC GD Mock Test 2024 in Hindi for the free online practice and preparation of upcoming exams for the recruitment of Constable GD in CAPF Forces. The SSC GD (Staff Selection Commission General Duty) exam is a prominent recruitment examination conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to recruit eligible candidates for various posts in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), National Investigation Agency (NIA), Secretariat Security Force (SSF), and Rifleman (General Duty) in the Assam Rifles.
Here are key points about the SSC GD exam:
Nature of the Exam:
The SSC GD exam is conducted annually to select candidates for the General Duty (GD) positions in various paramilitary forces and organizations.
Exam Stages:
The selection process typically involves a written examination, followed by a physical efficiency test (PET) and physical standard test (PST). Candidates who qualify in these stages move on to the medical examination and document verification.
Written Examination:
The written exam is conducted in online mode and comprises Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
The duration of the written exam is one hour.
The question paper is divided into four parts: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Knowledge & General Awareness, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi.
Negative Marking: For every incorrect answer, 0.50 marks will be deducted.
Exam Pattern :
Number of Part : 4 : Number of Questions in each part : 20, Maximum Marks of each part : 40
SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test in English for Online practice and preparation Exam. Full test includes questions from Mathematics, Reasoning, General Knowledge and English as per latest syllabus and Exam pattern of Combined Graduate Level exam paper.
Mathematics
Q.1: The cube of the difference between two given natural numbers is 1728, while the product of these two given numbers is 108. Find the sum of the cubes of these two given numbers. (a) 6048 (b) 5616 (c) 6024 (d) 5832
Answer
(a) 6048
Q.2: 30 men can complete a work in 12 days. After 6 days, 24 more men joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work? (a) days (b) days (c) days (d) days
Answer
(a) days
Q.3: A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 400m. When the policeman starts chasing, the thief also starts running. If the speed of the thief is 32km/h and that of the policeman is 40 km/h, then how far would the thief have run before he is overtaken? (a) 1500m (b) 1000m (c) 1200m (d) 1600m
Answer
(d) 1600m
Q.4: The cube of the difference between two given natural numbers is 1728, while the product of these two given numbers is 108. Find the positive difference between the cubes of these two given numbers. (a) 4104 (b) 5616 (c) 2160 (d) 5626
Answer
(b) 5616
Q.5: Study the following table and answer the question below.
School name
Total number of students enrolled
percentage of enrolled students who opted for Biology
Ratio of male to female students who opted for biology
A
900
30%
7:8
B
400
38%
9:10
C
1000
24%
5:19
D
800
18%
5:7
What is the ratio of the total number of male students to that of female students who opted for biology in schools A and D together?
(a) 38:31 (b) 21:38 (c) 31:28 (d) 31:38
Answer
(d) 31:38
Q.6: A conical tent of height 10m and base diameter 48m was erected by a company in a park. Find the curved surface area of the tent (in m2). (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer
(d)
Q.7: The number of sport bicycles sold by a shopkeeper in five years is shown in the following bar graph.
What is the percentage of decrease in the sale of sport bicycles in the year 2021 over that in the previous year? (a) 27.0% (b) 26.5% (c) 26.0% (d) 27.5%
Answer
(d) 27.5%
Q.8: Using trigonometric formulas, find the value of (a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
Answer
(d) 1
Q.9: Simplify the given expression. (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Answer
(b) 4
Q.10: The third proportional to (x2 – y2) and (x – y) is: (a) (x – y) (b) (c) (d) (x + y)
Answer
(b)
Q.11: A shopkeeper offers the following two discount schemes. A) Two successive discount of 10% and 15% B) Buy 5 get 2 free. Which scheme has the maximum discount percentage? (a) B does not give any discount (b) B (c) A and B both have the same discount percentage (d) A
Answer
(b) B
Q.12: A can finish a work in 20 days and B can complete the same work in 15 days. B worked for 9 days and left the job. In how many days can A alone finish the remaining work? (a) 10 days (b) 8 days (c) 9 days (d) 7 days
Answer
(b) 8 days
Q.13: Two trains P and Q of lengths 320 m and 540 m, respectively, are running in the same direction on parallel tracks at 108 km/h and 144 km/h, respectively. How much time will the trains take to cross each other completely? (a) 86 s (b) 54 s (c) 32 s (d) 68 s
Answer
(a) 86 s
Q.14: 10 men can do a work in 25 days. After 12 days of work, 3 more men were engaged to finish the work. The number of days required to complete the remaining work is: (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
Answer
(a) 10
Q.15: If the simple interest for 5 years is equal to 25% of the principal, then the interest will be equal to the principle after _________ years. (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 25 (d) 22
Answer
(a) 20
Q.16: Which of the following numbers will completely divide 412 + 413 + 414 + 415? (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 17
Answer
(d) 17
Q.17: If cot , then the value of (sinA + cosA) cosec A is_________. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1
Answer
(b)
Q.18: Raj’s income is 45,000 and his expenditure is 33,000. if his income is increase by 20% and expenditure by 12%, then what will be the percentage increase in saving? (a) 48% (b) 56% (c) 36% (d) 42%
Answer
(d) 42%
Q.19: Which of the following numbers is divisible by 24? (a) 52668 (b) 49512 (c) 64760 (d) 26968
Answer
(b) 49512
Q.20: The average weight of a team of 20 people was calculated to be 59.8 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 68 kg instead of 77kg. The correct average weight is: (a) 70.25 kg (b) 61.25 kg (c) 60.25 kg (d) 60.50kg
Answer
(c) 60.25 kg
Q.21: Let A, B, C be the mid-points of sides PQ, QR PR, respectively, of PQR. If the area of PQR is 32cm2, then find the area of ABC. (a) 24 cm2 (b) 16 cm2 (c) 32 cm2 (d) 8 cm2
Answer
(d) 8 cm2
Q.22: Two concentric circles of radii 15 cm and 13 cm are given. Find the length of the chord of the larger circle which touchers the smaller circle. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer
(c)
Q.23: On purchase of article worth ₹10,000, a shopkeeper offers a flat discount of ₹500 to his customers. Further, by shopping using a credit card, he gives an additional discount of 7%. If a customer purchases article worth Rs. 10000 using a credit card, then how much is he/she required to pay? (a) ₹ 8,835 (b) ₹9,000 (c) ₹8,815 (d) ₹9,300
Answer
(a) ₹ 8,835
Q.24: If tan = x, then find x. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer
(c)
Q.25: Two circles of radii 10cm and 5 cm touch each other externally at a point A. PQ is the direct common tangent of those two circles of centres 01 and 02, respectively the length of PQ is equal to: (a) cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm
Answer
(a) cm
Reasoning
Q.1: Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Variance 2. Violence 3. Vanquish 4. Vampire 5. Valiant 6. Victorious (a) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2, 6 (b) 5, 3, 4, 1, 6, 2 (c) 5, 4, 3, 1, 6, 2 (d) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1, 6
Answer
(c) 5, 4, 3, 1, 6, 2
Q.2: Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? (a) + and (b) and – (c) – and + (d) and +
Answer
(a) + and
Q.3: Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. AESO_WDAE_ _ MWDA_SOM_D_ESOMW_ (a) MOSEDAW (b) MSOEDAW (c) MOESWAD (d) MSOEWAD
Answer
(d) MSOEWAD
Q.4: Select the correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
Answer
(c)
Q.5: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number. 7 : 21 :: 14 : 42 :: 18 : ? (a) 57 (b) 54 (c) 63 (d) 72
Answer
(b) 54
Q.6: ‘Wilt’ is related to ‘Droop’ in the same way as ‘Thrive’ is related to ‘_______’. (a) Decline (b) Careful (c) Deteriorate (d) Flourish
Answer
(d) Flourish
Q.7: Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
Answer
(c)
Q.8: A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?
Answer
(b)
Q.9: Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? BCE, GHJ, LMO, QRT, ? (a) VWY (b) VWX (c) WXZ (d) UVX
Answer
(a) VWY
Q.10: In a certain code language, ‘time has come’ is coded as ‘et im ak’; ‘come with money’ is coded as ‘nd ak co’ and ‘money has power’ is coded as ‘fu et nd’. (All the codes are two-letter codes only.) How will ‘with power’ be coded in that language? (a) et mp (b) td fu (c) fu co (d) co mp
Answer
(c) fu co
Q.11: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Cotton : Cloth :: Sugarcane : ? (a) Salt (b) Coffee (c) Sugar (d) Chocolate
Answer
(c) Sugar
Q.12: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13-Opetaions on 13 such as adding/Subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (15, 21, 10) (25, 36, 17) (a) (100, 45, 87) (b) (100, 33, 31) (c) (123, 23, 56) (d) (50, 45, 31)
Answer
(b) (100, 33, 31)
Q.13: Select the sent in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13-Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (13, 64, 5) (10, 1, 9) (a) (15, 144, 9) (b) (16, 256, 9) (c) (15, 306, 9) (d) (16, 49, 9)
Answer
(d) (16, 49, 9)
Q.14: In a certain code language, ‘DESIGN’ is coded as 8-10-38-18-14-28 and ‘FOREST’ is coded as 12-30-36-10-38-40. How will ‘PLAYER’ be coded in the same language? (a) 32-24-2-50-10-36 (b) 32-26-2-50-12-38 (c) 36-24-2-50-10-34 (d) 32-22-2-50-12-36
Answer
(a) 32-24-2-50-10-36
Q.15: Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classess. Fathers, Brothers and Males
Answer
(b)
Q.16: Select the figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series.
Answer
(d)
Q.17: Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation. 36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63 (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer
(a)
Q.18: Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘3’.
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 2
Answer
(b) 1
Q.19: Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Answer
(d)
Q.20: Select the Venn Diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Clothes, Shirts, Linen Clothes = C Shirts = S Linen = L
Answer
(d)
Q.21: A % B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ A = B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A $ B means ‘A is the father of B’ If X % Y = Z % W $ V, then how is Z related to V? (a) Mother (b) Mother’s mother (c) Sister (d) Brother
Answer
(c) Sister
Q.22: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 3, 12, ?, 39, 57, 78 (a) 19 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 24
Answer
(d) 24
Q.23: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13-Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) (47, 108, 169) (22, 83, 144) (a) (11, 73, 133) (b) (51, 112, 173) (c) (33, 121, 181) (d) (8, 64, 130)
Answer
(b) (51, 112, 173)
Q.24: The second number in the given numbers pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operations (s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair. (a) 23 : 153 (b) 15 : 97 (c) 16 : 106 (d) 26 : 174
Answer
(c) 16 : 106
Q.25: Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. (a) HJNU (b) TXBG (c) ACGN (d) PRVC
Answer
(b) TXBG
General Awareness : SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test
Q.1: According to the Indian calendar, Hemanta season falls in which months? (a) Sravana-Bhadra (b) Chaitra-Vaisakha (c) Jyaistha-Asadha (d) Margashirsa-Pausa
Answer
(d) Margashirsa-Pausa
Q.2: Which of the following has the highest boiling point? (a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes (c) Free carbon dioxide (d) Alkynes
Answer
(d) Alkynes
Q.3: When was the National Urban Health Mission approved by the Government of India? (a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
Answer
(d) 2013
Q.4: According to Census of India 2011, which group of states of India has the highest population? (a) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra (b) Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur (c) Maharashtra and Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
Answer
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra
Q.5: Which of the following cyclones did NOT hit India during the years 2021-2022? (a) Yaas (b) Julia (c) Tauktae (d) Gulab
Answer
(b) Julia
Q.6: Identify the function of lipase in the process of digestion. (a) Breaking down roughage (b) Breaking down emulsified fats (c) Secreting intestinal fluids (d) Digesting proteins
Answer
(b) Breaking down emulsified fats
Q.7: Who among the following Kathak dancers of India founded the KADAMB Centre for Dance in 1964? (a) Shovana Narayan (b) Sitara Devi (c) Rohini Bhate (d) Kumudini Lakhia
Answer
(d) Kumudini Lakhia
Q.8: Which of the following is NOT an initiative by the government for development of the microfinance sector in India? (a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (b) E-Shakti Initiative (c) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (d) India Micro Finance Equity Fund
Answer
(a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
Q.9: The maximum distance covered in a marathon is _______. (a) 40 km (b) 42.5km (c) 42.195 km (d) 41.5 km
Answer
(c) 42.195 km
Q.10: Elphinstone was the Governor of which province of India during 1819-27? (a) North West Frontier province (b) Madras (c) Bengal (d) Bombay
Answer
(d) Bombay
Q.11: India won the Thomas Cup in the year _______. (a) 2018 (b) 2019 (c) 2022 (d) 2020
Answer
(c) 2022
Q.12: Who was the president of the second session of the Indian National Congress? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee (c) Pherozeshah Mehta (d) George Yule
Answer
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.13: Who among the following was a Padma Bhushan awardee, legendary Bharatnatyam exponent, theosophist and founder of the Kalakshetra Dance School ? (a) Sonal Mansingh (b) Saroja Vaidyanathan (c) Rukmini Devi Arundale (d) Mallika Sarabhai
Answer
(c) Rukmini Devi Arundale
Q.14: M S Subbulakshmi, a legend in India is known for which of the following? (a) Ghazal music (b) Sufi devotional music (c) Hindustani music (d) Carnatic music
Answer
(d) Carnatic music
Q.15: Which of the following is a negative effect of Green Revolution in India? (i) Depletion of groundwater table (ii) Deterioration in the quality of soil (iii) Increased input cost (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iii)
Answer
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q.16: Under the Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana launched in September 2021, the Government of India has proposed to impart training to a total of 50,000 candidates over a ______. year period. (a) four (b) two (c) five (d) three
Answer
(d) three
Q.17: Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (A) : An object slips less on a rough surface than a smooth surface. (R) : When a surface is rough, frictional force increase. (a) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Answer
(d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q.18: On 1 February 2021, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman informed that ______and _____ will be merged under the umbrella of Mission POSHAN 2.0. (a) Supplementary Health Programme: National health mission (b) Supplementary Nutrition Programme: National Health Mission (c) Supplementary Nutrition Programme: National Nutrition Mission (d) Supplementary Health Programme: National Nutrition Mission
Answer
(c) Supplementary Nutrition Programme: National Nutrition Mission
Q.19: Who among the following was appointed as the chairperson of the 22nd Law Commission in 2022? (a) Justice UU Lalit (b) Justice VV Raman (c) Justice KT Shankaran (d) Justice Rituraj Awasthi
Answer
(d) Justice Rituraj Awasthi
Q.20: Assume a situation where A has gone to a cinema hall with her friends to watch a movie. In the next seat she realises that it is her maid who is also watching the movie. Now A asks her maid to leave the cinema hall. in the above scenario, which of the following Article of the Constitution of India can provide relief to the maid? (a) Article 16 (b) Article 15 (c) Article 18 (d) Article 17
Answer
(b) Article 15
Q.21: Who among the following was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) SP Sen Verma (c) Sukumar Sen (d) KVK Sundaram
Answer
(c) Sukumar Sen
Q.22: Which festival its origin to the Tibetan New Year and in Ladakh, It is celebrated every year at the end of the harvesting season? (a) Losar festival (b) Matho Nagrang (c) Yuru Kabgyat (d) Dosmoche
Answer
(a) Losar festival
Q.23: Sabha and Ur, two kinds of village assemblies are referred to in which of the following dynasties? (a) Chola (b) Rashtrakuta (c) Gurjara Pratihara (d) Chalukya
Answer
(a) Chola
Q.24: Who among th following was defeated by Mauryan emperor Chandragupta Maurya? (a) Cassander (b) Seleucus Nicator (c) Antigones (d) Ptolemy
Answer
(b) Seleucus Nicator
Q.25:Which state was awarded the Raja Bhalendra Singh trophy for the overall championship in the 37th National Games? a. Haryana b. Maharashtra c. Goa d. Uttarakhand
Answer
Ans : b. Maharashtra
English : SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test
Q.1: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Perseverance (a) Irresolution (b) Obstinacy (c) Readiness (d) Eloquence
Answer
(a) Irresolution
Q.2: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A group of worshippers (a) Congregation (b) Crowd (c) Caravan (d) Constellation
Answer
(a) Congregation
Q.3: Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. He will return in a hour. (a) return (b) He will (c) hour (d) in a
Answer
(d) in a
Q.4: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Her sudden arrival has disarranged my plans. (a) Timing (b) Entrance (c) Departure (d) Appearance
Answer
(c) Departure
Q.5: Sentence of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentence in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. It superseded India’s previous educational strategy, which was created in 1986. B. The Indian union cabinet approved the country’s national education strategy on 29 July 2020. C. And it provides a framework for education from the primary grades up to higher education, as well as for vocational training in both urban and rural settings. D. This policy significantly improves India’s educational system. Restructuring India’s education system is the primary goal of the National Education Policy 2022. (a) DBCA (b) ABDC (c) BCDA (d) BADC
Answer
(d) BADC
Q.6: Select the most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank. Mohan _______ the charge of Centre for Life Skills from Mustafa. (a) took out (b) took through (c) took off (d) took over
Answer
(d) took over
Q.7: Identify the sentence that provides the meaning of the given idiom. Under the cloud (a) The classmates were dancing together under the rain. (b) The driver was under suspicion after the police found blood on his car. (c) The Red fort looks beautiful amidst the cloudy weather and cold atmosphere. (d) It was the best place to sit under the sky with hands full of food.
Answer
(b) The driver was under suspicion after the police found blood on his car.
Q.8: Choose the option that can substitute the underlined segment correctly and complete the meaning of the sentence. Bajrang is in extreme pain in his teeth. (a) Ache (b) Agony (c) Hurt (d) Sting
Answer
(b) Agony
Q.9: Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. (a) Nocturnal (b) Repulcive (c) Scoreboard (d) Irrespective
Answer
(b) Repulcive
Q.10: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Unsure’ from the given sentence. Himanshi is preparing customised gifts and handicrafts for surprising Mehul on his retirement, but the date is not certain yet. (a) date (b) certain (c) customised (d) handicrafts
Answer
(b) certain
Q.11: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. He was acquitted of all the charges in the court today. (a) Conformed (b) Discharged (c) Praised (d) Convicted
Answer
(d) Convicted
Q.12: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Her modest behaviour was appreciated by everyone in the assembly. (a) distant (b) unpresuming (c) conceited (d) obvious
Answer
(c) conceited
Q.13: Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank. She looked __________ (luminous) in the diamond necklace. (a) impudent (b) strident (c) transcendent (d) resplendent
Answer
(d) resplendent
Q.14: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Once in a blue moon (a) Very ancient (b) Very colorful (c) Very rare (d) Very high
Answer
(c) Very rare
Q.15: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who teaches her geography? (a) By who geography is taught to her? (b) By whom she is taught geography? (c) By whom is she taught geography? (d) By whom was she taught geography?
Answer
(c) By whom is she taught geography?
Q.16: Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Because of the region’s scorching heat and aridity, a considerable amount of water evaporates. B. As a result, the salt and other minerals become increasingly concentrated. C. It is then unable to exit the lake and is forced to evaporate. D. The Dead Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water on the planet, with about ten times the salt content of typical saltwater. E. This is because water flows into the Dead Sea from a single primary tributary, the Jordan River. (a) DECAB (b) DCBAE (c) DEABC (d) DACEB
Answer
(a) DECAB
Q.17: Sentence of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentence in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Bauxite is used as a main raw material for the production of aluminium. B. Precipitation is a pre-final stage for actual production. C. Sodium aluminate is acquired in the next step. D. The smelting process actually extracts aluminium as a final product from its oxide. (a) ABCD (b) ACBD (c) DCAB (d) ADCB
Answer
(b) ACBD
Q.18: Sentence of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. She dashed from one side to the other, taking care not to destroy the lovely flowers in the garden. B. Karen took a stroll in a lovely garden full of tulips and butterflies. C. She discovered a swing constructed of tree branches behind a large bush. D. Karen went into the swing without hesitation and began swinging, causing the wind to dishevel her hair. E. The small girl adored the outdoors and relished the breeze blowing through her hair. (a) BEACD (b) DBCAE (c) BDECA (d) BDCAE
Answer
(a) BEACD
Q.19: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who broke my glasses? (a) Who had broken my glasses? (b) Who is breaking my glasses? (c) By whom were my glasses being broken? (d) By whom were my glasses broken?
Answer
(d) By whom were my glasses broken?
Q.20: Select the correctly spelt option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence. Her duel attitude misguides everyone. (a) daul (b) deul (c) dual (d) dwell
Answer
(c) dual
Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Posters are (1)______ to promote a brand or pass (2) _______ important information. They can be used for (3) ________ purposes ranging from telling people to be cautious as the floor is wet, to informing them about an upcoming sale or event. They usually include a picture (4) __________ very few words. A suitable (5) __________ makes a poster effective and memorable.
Q.21: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1. (a) use (b) uses (c) being use (d) used
Answer
(d) used
Q.22: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2. (a) away (b) on (c) for (d) to
Answer
(b) on
Q.23: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3. (a) tittle (b) varied (c) much (d) similar
Answer
(b) varied
Q.24: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4. (a) nor (b) and (c) yet (d) also
Answer
(b) and
Q.25: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5. (a) caption (b) anticipation (c) quotation (d) caution
SSC CGL online Mock Test for Tier 1, free without registration in Hindi and English for preparation of upcoming exams in 2024. Subject and topic wise practice set of Reasoning, Mathematics, General Knowledge and English Language.
The SSC CGL (Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level) Mock Test is a practice examination designed to help candidates prepare for the actual SSC CGL examination. The SSC CGL is a highly competitive examination conducted by the Staff Selection Commission for recruitment to various Group B and Group C posts in the government sector.
Here are key points about the SSC CGL Mock Test:
Purpose of Mock Tests:
The primary purpose of SSC CGL Mock Tests is to provide candidates with a simulated exam environment to assess their preparation levels, identify strengths and weaknesses, and practice time management.
Online Testing Platform:
SSC CGL Mock Tests are usually conducted online to mimic the actual exam format. Candidates can take these tests on the official SSC website or other authorized platforms.
Question Pattern:
The mock tests follow the SSC CGL exam pattern, including sections such as General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension. The questions are carefully crafted to align with the syllabus.
Time Management Practice:
One of the crucial aspects of the SSC CGL exam is time management. Mock tests help candidates practice allocating time to different sections, ensuring they can complete the entire paper within the stipulated time.
Instant Feedback:
After completing a mock test, candidates receive instant feedback on their performance. This includes a detailed analysis of correct and incorrect answers, helping them understand areas that need improvement.
Performance Analysis:
Mock tests provide a comprehensive performance analysis, including a scorecard, percentile ranking, and a breakdown of performance in each section. This analysis aids candidates in identifying their strong and weak points.
Revision and Practice:
Regularly taking SSC CGL Mock Tests serves as an excellent revision tool. It allows candidates to revisit and reinforce concepts, helping them gain confidence and familiarity with the exam pattern.
Accessibility:
Mock tests are accessible to candidates across the country, enabling them to practice from the comfort of their homes. This accessibility is particularly advantageous for candidates residing in areas with limited coaching facilities.
Adaptive Learning:
Some mock test platforms offer adaptive learning features, tailoring subsequent tests based on the candidate’s performance in previous attempts. This personalized approach enhances the effectiveness of preparation.
Realistic Experience:
SSC CGL Mock Tests aim to replicate the actual exam conditions, providing candidates with a realistic experience of the examination hall, time constraints, and question difficulty levels.
days
days
days
days
, then the value of (sinA + cosA) 
cosec A is_________. 
PQR. If the area of 
= x, then find x.
cm
cm
cm
cm
and –
