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Common University Admission Entrance Test for Under Graduate Course CUET (UG) History Sample Paper for free online practice. Mock set of Section II Domain Subject History as per latest exam pattern.

Instruction: Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes
Answer key is given end of the post

CUET (UG) Sample Paper : History

Q.1: Which of the following Harappan sites is located in
Gujarat?
(a) Lothal
(b) Dholavira
(c) Banawali
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.2: Harappa was discovered by
(a) Rakhal Das Banerji
(b) Daya Ram Sahni
(c) A Ghosh
(d) John Marshall

Q.3: Which of the following is true about Harappan religion?
(a) Nature worship was in vogue.
(b) Female deities were not dominant.
(c) No cult of mother Goddess was found.
(d) Temple structures were unearthed.

Q.4: What is the meaning of the title Devanampiya adopted by Asoka?
(a) Pleasant to be hold
(b) Beloved of the Gods
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.5: Jatakas were written in
(a) Pali
(b) Brahmi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Prakrit

Q.6: The Kharosthi script used in inscriptions in the
(a) South-West
(b) North-West
(c) North-East
(d) West-East

Q.7: The critical edition of the Mahabharata was completed in the year ……… .
(a) 1919
(b) 1925
(c) 1927
(d) 1966

Q.8: The term vanik in Sanskrit inscriptions is used to designate ……… .
(a) merchants
(b) soldiers
(c) traders
(d) farmers

Q.9: Who were engaged in agriculture, pastoralism and trade?
(a) Kshatriya
(b) Brahmana
(c) Shudra
(d) Vaishaya

Q.10: Buddha belonged to
(a) Sakya clan
(b) Licchavi
(c) Kamboj
(d) Suryavanshi clan

Q.11: Sanga was an organisation of whom?
(a) Monks
(b) Merchants
(c) Brahmana
(d) Preachers

Q.12: Who is worshipped in Vaishnavism?
(a) Shiva
(b) Krishna
(c) Vishnu
(d) Indra

Q.13: How many social categories were recognised by
Al-Biruni?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Six

Q.14: Ibn Battuta described which city as big and populated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Agra
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad

Q.15: Which one of the following traveller settled in India and never returned?
(a) Manucci
(b) Bernier
(c) Ibn Battuta
(d) Barbosa

Q.16: Vishnu Bhakt saints were known as
(a) Alvars
(b) Nayanars
(c) Nirguna
(d) None of these

Q.17: What is the literal meaning of the term ‘Silsila’?
(a) A chain
(b) Disciple
(c) Devotion
(d) Without attributes

Q.18: Who compiled the hymns of Baba Guru Nanak?
(a) Guru Arjan Dev
(b) Guru Hargobind
(c) Guru Angad Dev
(d) Guru Tegh Bahadur

Q.19: Krishnadeva Raya belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Chola
(b) Pallava
(c) Tuluva
(d) Chera

Q.20: Which river was the major source of water for Vijayanagara?
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Tungabhadra

Q.21: Virupaksha temple is located in
(a) Vijayanagara
(b) Bijapur
(c) Mysore
(d) Madurai

Q.22: Abu’l Fazl was a court historian of which Mughal emperor?
(a) Humayun
(b) Babur
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir

Q.23: The term used for village headman was
(a) Kamil
(b) Muqaddam
(c) Shahnahr
(d) Asamis

Q.24: The Zamindars held large area of personal lands known as
(a) Landlord
(b) Milkiyat
(c) Miras
(d) Patwari

Q.25: Humayun was the successor of
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Babur
(d) Shahjahan

Q.26: Which Mughal emperor used the title ‘Alamgir’?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb

Q.27: Who introduced ‘Jharokha Darshan’?
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Humayun

Q.28: Who was Governor General of Bengal when the permanent settlement was introduced?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Buchanan
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord William

Q.29: What were rich ryots called?
(a) Mandals
(b) Jotedars
(c) Zamindars
(d) All of these

Q.30: Which of the following explains Paharias?
(a) Hunters
(b) Shifting Cultivator
(c) Food gatherers
(d) All of these

Q.31: At which place mutiny broke out on 10th May, 1857
(a) Meerut
(b) Barrackpore
(c) Kanpur
(d) Delhi

Q.32: Shah Mal become the leaders of Revolt 1857 of Pargana Baraut in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Bihar

Q.33: Which of the following issues did not contributed in spread of revolt?
(a) Issue of Cartridges
(b) Conversion of Indians to Christianity
(c) Mixing of bone dust in flour
(d) Dishonouring Hindu Women

Q.34: When did East India Company settled in Madras?
(a) 1605
(b) 1639
(c) 1498
(d) 1506

Q.35: Who donated money for the construction of University Hall?
(a) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney
(b) Premchand Roychand
(c) Rajabai Roychand
(d) Jamsetji Tata

Q.36: The company setup its trading activities first in
(a) Madras
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay

Q.37: Principals focus in South Indian towns such as Madurai and Kanchipuram was the ………
(a) Temple
(b) Music
(c) Bazaars
(d) Trade

Q.38: In which year Mahatma Gandhi returned to India?
(a) 1915
(b) 1914
(c) 1916
(d) 1910

Q.39: Banaras Hindu University was opened in the year ………… .
(a) 1910
(b) 1915
(c) 1916
(d) 1917

Q.40: Chauri-Chaura incident took place in 1922, this place is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Delhi
(d) West Bengal

Q.41: Which of the following are the causes of portion of India?
(a) Hindu-Muslim Conflict
(b) Communal Politics
(c) Religious Tensions
(d) All of these

Q.42: In which year provincial election were held for the first time?
(a) 1926
(b) 1937
(c) 1946
(d) 1947

Q.43: Unionist Party was belonged to
(a) Punjab
(b) Bengal
(c) Madras
(d) All of these

Q.44: The riots of Kolkata was took place in
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1948

Q.45: Who was BN Rau?
(a) Constitutional Advisor of GOI
(b) Steering Committee
(c) Drafting Committee
(d) Provincial Constitution Committee

Q.46: Who among the following made a powerful plea for continuing separates electorates?
(a) B. Pocker
(b) BN Rao
(c) SN Mukherjee
(d) Dr. Ambedkar

Q.47: The Constitution of India came into effect on
(a) 26th January, 1946
(b) 26th October, 1950
(c) 15th August, 1950
(d) 26th January, 1950

Q.48: Which type of craft activities was done in Chanhudaro?
(a) Brad-making
(b) Shell-cutting
(c) Metal-work
(d) All of the above

Q.49: Who was known as Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam
(b) Sheikh Abdullah
(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(d) Nawab Salimmullah

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Pradsad
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

Answer Key : CUET History Sample Paper

1. (d)	2. (b)	3. (a)	4. (b)	5. (a)	6. (b)	7. (d)	8. (a)	9. (d)	10. (a)
11. (a)	12. (c)	13. (b)	14. (c)	15. (a)	16. (b)	17. (a)	18. (a)	19. (c)	20. (d)
21. (a)	22. (c)	23. (b)	24. (b)	25. (c)	26. (d)	27. (a)	28. (c)	29. (b)	30. (d)
31. (a)	32. (b)	33. (d)	34. (b)	35. (a)	36. (b)	37. (a)	38. (a)	39. (c)	40. (a)
41. (d)	42. (b)	43. (a)	44. (b)	45. (a)	46. (a)	47. (d)	48. (d)	49. (c)	50. (d)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) History Sample Paper for admission in under graduate courses.

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CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper : Free Mock Test for online practice. CUET Section II – Domain Subject Biology Practice Set is very useful for admission in 2024 -2025 academic session.

CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper

• Instructions : Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
• Time : 45 Minutes
• Answer key are given end of the set

Q.1: Asexual reproduction is a method of reproduction in which participation of ……… takes place.
(a) one individual
(b) two individuals (same species)
(c) multi-individuals
(d) two individuals (different species)

Q.2: In diploid organism the gamete producing cells are called
(a) gamete mother cell
(b) meiocytes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.3: The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively
(a) 12, 24, 12
(b) 24, 12, 12
(c) 12, 24, 24
(d) 24, 12, 24

Q.4: Number of microsporangia in an angiospermic anther is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q.5: Characteristic of wind pollinated pollens is, they are
(a) non-sticky
(b) light
(c) produced in large number
(d) All of the above

Q.6: Dehiscence of anther in mesophytes is caused by
(a) hydration of anthers
(b) dehydration of anthers
(c) mechanical injury
(d) None of these

Q.7: Approximate length and width of testis are
(a) 4-5 cm and 2-3 cm
(b) 5-6 cm and 3-4 cm
(c) 6-7 cm and 4-5 cm
(d) 7-8 cm and 8-9 cm

Q.8: Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
(a) GnRH
(b) prolactin
(c) testosterone
(d) oestrogen

Q.9: Inner cell mass or embryoblast gives rise to
(a) foetal part
(b) embryo
(c) notochord
(d) nourishment cell

Q.10: Family planning programme was initiated in
(a) 1951
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1950

Q.11: The other names for STIs or STDs are
(a) venereal diseases
(b) reproductive tract infections
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.12: GIFT can be advised to couples where female partner is
(a) unable to produce eggs
(b) unable to support a foetus
(c) unable to provide suitable environment for fertilisation and maturation of foetus
(d) All of the above

Q.13: Out of 7 contrasting trait pairs selected by Mendel, how many traits were dominant and recessive?
(a) 7 and 7
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 6 and 8
(d) 5 and 9

Q.14: If there are four different types of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G and C) then how many different types of transitions and transversion are possible?
(a) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4
(b) Transition = 4, Transversion = 4
(c) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4
(d) Transition = 4, Transversion = 8

Q.15: In sickle-cell anaemia,
(a) Both parents are heterozygous carriers, but are unaffected
(b) Single pair of allele controls the disease
(c) Only Hb Hb s s show diseased phenotype
(d) All of the above

Q.16: Choose the correct option.
(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine
(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine

Q.17: Termination of protein synthesis or translation requires
(a) Both stop signal and starting codon
(b) Both starting codon and release factor
(c) Both release factor and stop codon
(d) GUG and AUG codon

Q.18: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying the differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called
(a) non-repetitive DNA
(b) coding DNA
(c) non-coding DNA
(d) repetitive DNA

Q.19: Evidence that evolution of life forms has indeed taken place on earth has come from
(a) fossil studies (palaeontological evidences)
(b) morphological and comparative anatomical studies
(c) biochemical studies
(d) All of the above

Q.20: First human like hominid is known as
(a) Neanderthal man
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Dryopithecus
(d) Homo erectus

Q.21: The diagram given here shows the skull of two different mammals. Choose the most appropriate difference between A and B.

(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human

Q.22: Common symptoms of typhoid are
(a) high fever 39°C to 40°C and weakness
(b) stomach pain and constipation
(c) headache and loss of appetite
(d) All of the above

Q.23: Physical carcinogens, e.g. UV-ray, X-ray and g-rays cause
(a) DNA damage
(b) RNA damage
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) Protein damage

Q.24: LSD is derived from
(a) Claviceps purpurea
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Cannabis indica
(d) Cannabis sativa

Q.25: Choose the correct option.
(a) More than 70% of the world livestock population is in India and China
(b) The contribution of India and china to the world farm produce is about 25%
(c) Important livestock of India are cattle and buffaloes
(d) All of the above

Q.26: Pomato is a somatic hybrid of
(a) potato and onion
(b) potato and tomato
(c) potato and brinjal
(d) brinjal and tomato

Q.27: The technique of regeneration of whole plant from any part of a plant by allowing it to grow on a suitable culture under aseptic sterile conditions in vitro is called
(a) tissue culture
(b) plant culture
(c) micropropagation
(d) somatic hybridisation

Q.28: The microscopic proteinaceous infectious agents are
(a) viroids
(b) prions
(c) protozoans
(d) bacteria

Q.29: In the primary treatment of sewage, the soil and small pebbles are removed by
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) condensation
(d) evaporation

Q.30: A biocontrol agent used for pest butterfly caterpillars is
(a) Trichoderma
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Rhizobium

Q.31: Restriction endonuclease binds to DNA and cuts two strands of double helix at specific points in their
(a) sugar-phosphate backbone
(b) hydrogen bond
(c) glycosidic bonds
(d) None of the above

Q.32: Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers a piece of DNA into dicot plant. The piece of DNA is called as
(a) rDNA
(b) T-DNA
(c) mDNA
(d) cDNA

Q.33: Protein encoding gene which is expressed in heterologous host is
(a) foreign protein
(b) heterologous protein
(c) recombinant protein
(d) alien protein

Q.34: Bt toxin is
(a) intracellular crystalline protein
(b) extracellular crystalline protein
(c) intracellular monosaccharide
(d) extracellular polysaccharide

Q.35: Which of the following transgenic animals are used in testing safety of polio vaccine before they are used on human?
(a) Transgenic cow
(b) Transgenic monkey
(c) Transgenic mice
(d) Transgenic sheep

Q.36: For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4 year old girl in 1990 to treat which of the following enzyme deficiency?
(a) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
(b) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
(c) Tyrosine oxidase
(d) Glutamate trihydrogenase

Q.37: Different organisms are adapted to their environment in terms of not only survival but also reproduction. This statement belongs to
(a) physiological ecology
(b) species ecology
(c) population ecology
(d) All of these

Q.38: Interspecific interaction could be
(a) beneficial
(b) detrimental
(c) neutral
(d) All of these

Q.39: Mycorrhiza represents an intimate mutualistic relationship between
(a) fungi and stem of higher plants
(b) fungi and roots of higher plants
(c) fungi and leaves of higher plants
(d) fungi and leaflets of higher plants

Q.40: Stratification is more pronounced in
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) deciduous forest
(c) temperate forest
(d) tropical savannah

Q.41: The relation between producers and consumers in an ecosystem can be graphically represented in the form of a pyramid called
(a) ecological pyramid
(b) trophic level
(c) Pi chart
(d) pyramid of biomass

Q.42: Which of the following factor is contributing to an overload of the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Cellular respiration
(c) Deforestation
(d) Afforestation

Q.43: Tropics (23.5°N to 23.5°S) have ……. species as compared to temperate or polar regions. The most appropriate word to
fill the blank is
(a) less
(b) equal
(c) more
(d) None of these

Q.44: In which one of the following, both pairs have correct combination?
(a) In situ conservation/National park Ex situ conservation/Botanical garden
(b) In situ conservation/Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation/Wildlife sanctuary
(c) In situ conservation/Seed bank Ex situ conservation/National park
(d) In situ conservation/Tissue culture Ex situ conservation/Sacred groves

Q.45: Sacred groves in India are found in
(a) Jaintia hills of Karnataka
(b) Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu
(c) Aravalli hills of Meghalaya
(d) Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh

Q.46: Which of the following problem(s) is/are created by a brief exposure to extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more generated by take off of a jet plane or rocket?
(a) Deafness
(b) Damage eardrums
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.47: Slash and burn agriculture in North-Eastern states of India is also called
(a) ley farming
(b) commercial agriculture
(c) Jhum cultivation
(d) All of these

Q.48: Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas because it is
(a) used in greenhouse to increase plant growth
(b) transparent to heat but traps sunlight
(c) transparent to sunlight but traps heat
(d) transparent to both sunlight and heat

Q.49: In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by
(a) water currents only
(b) wind and water
(c) insects and water
(d) insects or wind

Q.50: Which one of the following is true with respect to AUG?
(a) It codes for methionine only
(b) It is also an initiation codon
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(d) All of the above

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper

1. (a)	2. (c)	3. (c)	4. (d)	5. (d)	6. (b)	7. (a)	8. (a)	9. (b)	10. (a)
11. (c)	12. (d)	13. (a)	14. (d)	15. (d)	16. (b)	17. (c)	18. (d)	19. (d)	20. (b)
21. (d)	22. (d)	23. (a)	24. (a)	25. (d)	26. (b)	27. (a)	28. (b)	29. (b)	30. (b)
31. (a)	32. (b)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (c)	36. (b)	37. (a)	38. (d)	39. (b)	40. (a)
41. (a)	42. (c)	43. (c)	44. (a)	45. (d)	46. (c)	47. (c)	48. (c)	49. (d)	50. (d)

Thanks for the visit and attempt CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper for mock practice of Test.

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Common University Entrance Test – CUET (UG) Mathematics Sample Paper as per official syllabus and exam pattern. CUET exam Section II Domain Subject Maths paper Mock for free online practice for the admission in 2024 – 2025 Academic session.

CUET (UG) Sample Paper : Mathematics

Instruction : Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Duration : 45 Minutes

Q1: Let n(A) = 4 and n(B) = 6. Then, the number of one-one functions from A to B is
(a) 24
(b) 60
(c) 120
(d) 360

Q.2: A relation R from A to B is an arbitrary subset of
(a) A x B
(b) B x A
(c) A x A
(d) B x B

Q.3: Let A = {1, 2, 3}. Then, number of relations containing (1, 2) and (1, 3) which are reflexive and symmetric but not transitive, is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q.4: Let R be a function defined as The inverse of f is the map g : range given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q.5: The domain in which sine function will be one-one, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.6: cosec x is not defined for
(a) all integral multiples of
(b) all integral multiples of
(c) all integral multiples of
(d) None of the above

Q.7: The principal value of is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q.8: The value of is ……. Here, X refers to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 0

Q.9: The number of all possible matrices of order 3 x 3 with each entry 0 or 1 is
(a) 27
(b) 18
(c) 81
(d) 512

Q.10: If A and B are two matrices of the order 3 x m and 3 x n, respectively and m=n, then the order of the matrix (5A – 2B)is
(a) m x 3
(b) 3 x 3
(c) m x n
(d) 3 x n

Q.11: Two matrices A = [a_ij] and B =[b_ij] are said to be equal, if they are of same order and for all i and j
(a) a_ij = b_ji
(b) a_ij = b_ij
(c) a_ij = – b_ij
(d) a_ij + b_ij = 0

Q.12: If A is a 3 x 2 matrix, B is a 3 x 3 matrix and C is a 2 x 3 matrix, then the elements in A, B and C are respectively
(a) 6, 9, 8
(b) 6, 9, 6
(c) 9, 6, 6
(d) 6, 6, 9

Q.13: The area of the triangle, whose vertices are (3, 8), (-4, 2) and (5, 1), is
(a) 60
(b) 61
(c)
(d) 30

Q.14: If each element of a row (or a column) of a determinant is multiplied by a constant k, then its value gets …A… by k. Here, A refers to
(a) added
(b) subtracted
(c) divided
(d) multiplied

Q.15: If the value of the determinant is positive, then
(a) abc > 1
(b) abc > – 8
(c) abc < – 8
(d) abc > – 2

Q.16: If , then the cofactor A₂₁ is
(a) -(hc + fg)
(b) fg – hc
(c) fg + hc
(d) hc – fg

Q.17: The function is not continuous at
(a) x = 0
(b) x = 1
(c) x = -1
(d) None of these

Q.18: Continuity of a function at a point is entirely dictated by the…A… of the function at that point. Here, A refers to
(a) limit
(b) value
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.19: A function is said to be differentiable in an interval [a, b ], if it is differentiable at every point of [a, b ]
(a) including a and b
(b) excluding a and b
(c) including a but not b
(d) including b but not a

Q.20: Let b > 1be a real number. Then, logarithm of a to the base b is x, if
(a) b^a = x
(b) a^b = x
(c) b^x = a
(d) None of these

Q.21: The radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate of 3 cm/s. At radius of 10 cm, the area of the circle is increasing at the rate of
(a) cm²/ S
(b) cm²/ S
(c) cm²/ S
(d) cm²/ S

Q.22: The function given f(x)=e^2x is …A… on R. Here, A refers to
(a) strictly increasing
(b) strictly decreasing
(c) neither increasing nor decreasing
(d) decreasing

Q.23: The function given by f(x) = x³ – 3x² + 3x – 100 is
(a) increasing on R
(b) decreasing on R
(c) strictly decreasing on R
(d) None of these

Q.24: The approximate value of f(2.01), if f(x) =4x² + 5x + 2, is
(a) 28.21
(b) 18.24
(c) 21.28
(d) 29.30

Q.25: If the derivative of a function sec^-1x is , then the anti-derivative of is
(a) sec^-1 x
(b) sec^-1x+C
(c) 2 sec^-1x
(d) None of these

Q.26: The anti-derivative of [ sec x (sec x + tan x)] is
(a) 2sec x + C
(b) tan x + sec x + C
(c) sec² x + sec x tan x + C
(d) None of these

Q.27: The integral of the function tan⁴ x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q.28: The value of is
(a)
(b)
(c) sin^-1
(d) None of the above

Q.29: If the area between x = y² and x = 4 is divided into two equal parts by the line x = a, then the value of a is
(a) (4)^1/3
(b) (4)^4/3
(c) (4)^2/3
(d) None of these

Q.30: Area of the region bounded by the curve y = cos x between x = 0 and x = is
(a) 2 sq units
(b) 4 sq units
(c) 3 sq units
(d) 1 sq unit

Q.31: Area (in sq units) lying between the curves y² = 4x and y = 2x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q.32: The area of the circle x² + y² = 16 exterior to the parabola y² = 6x is
(a) sq units
(b) sq units
(c) sq units
(d) sq units

Q.33: The equation of the form is a\an
(a) cubic equation
(b) quadratic equation
(c) ordinary differential equation
(d) None of the above

Q.34: The equation y = mx + c, where m and c are parameters, represents family of
(a) straight lines
(b) circles
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola

Q.35: The equation of a curve whose tangent at any point on it different from origin has slope , is
(a) y = ex
(b)
(c) y = kx
(d)

Q.36: A differential equation of the form =F(x, y) is said to be homogeneous, if F(x, y) is a homogeneous function of degree
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Q.37: If two or more vectors are parallel to the same line then they are called
(a) collinear vectors
(b) coinitial vectors
(c) equal vectors
(d) zero vectors

Q.38: If four points A(3,2,1), B(4, x, 5), C (4,2,-2) and D (6, 5,-1) are coplanar, then the value of x is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 0

Q.39: In ABC (fig), which of the following is not true?

(a) AB + BC + CA = O
(b) AB + BC – AC = O
(c) AB + BC – CA = O
(d) AB – CB + CA = O

Q.40: If α,β,γ be the direction angles of a vector and cos α =, cosβ =, then cos γ=……..K……. Here, K refers to
(a) ±
(b)
(c) ±
(d) None of these

Q.41: The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are given by the equations 3l + m + 5n = 0 and 6mn – 2nl + 5lm=0, is
(a) cos^-1
(b) cos^-1
(c) cos^-1
(d) cos^-1

Q.42: The lines and are
(a) coplanar
(b) non-coplanar
(c) skew
(d) None of these

Q.43: The distance of the plane from the origin is
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c)
(d) None of these

Q.44: The conditions are called
(a) restrictions only
(b) negative restrictions
(c) non-negative restrictions
(d) None of these

Q.45: The corner points of the feasible region determined by the system of linear constraints are (0, 10), (5, 5) (15, 15), (0, 20). Let Z = px + qy, where p, q > 0. Then, the condition on p and q so that the maximum of Z occurs at both the points (15, 15) and (0, 20), is
(a) p = q
(b) p = 2q
(c) q = 2p
(d) q = 3p

Q.46: A diet is to contain atleast 80 units of vitamin A and 100 units of minerals. Two foods F₁ and F₂ are available. Food F₁ costs ₹ 4 per unit and food F₂ costs ₹ 6 per unit. One unit of food F₁ contains 3 units of vitamin A and 4 units of minerals. One unit of food F₂ contains 6 units of vitamin A and 3 units of minerals. Then, the minimum cost for diet that consists of mixture of these two foods and also meets the minimal nutritional requirements, is
(a) ₹ 100
(b) ₹ 105
(c) ₹ 103
(d) ₹ 104

Q.47: One kind of cake requires 200g of flour and 25g of fat and another kind of cake requires 100g of flour and 50g of fat. Then, the maximum number of cakes which can be made from 5kg of flour and 1kg of fat assuming that there is no storage of the other ingredients used in making the cakes, is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 10
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 40

Q.48: Let A and B be two events. If P(A)= 0.2, P(B) = 0.4 and P, then P(A / B) is equal to
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) 0

Q.49: Two dice are thrown. If it is known that the sum of numbers on the dice was less than 6, the probability of getting a sum 3, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q.50: A description giving the values of the random variable along with the corresponding probabilities is called …K… of the random variable X. Here, K refers to
(a) conditional probability
(b) probability distribution
(c) mean
(d) None of the above

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Mathematics Sample Paper

1. (d)	2. (a)	3. (a)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (b)	7. (c)	8. (c)	9. (d)	10. (d)
11. (b)	12. (b)	13. (c)	14. (d)	15. (b)	16. (b)	17. (a)	18. (c)	19. (a)	20. (c)
21. (d)	22. (a)	23. (a)	24. (a)	25. (b)	26. (b)	27. (c)	28. (c)	29. (c)	30. (a)
31. (b)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (b)	36. (a)	37. (a)	38. (c)	39. (c)	40. (a)
41. (c)	42. (a)	43. (a)	44. (c)	45. (d)	46. (d)	47. (c)	48. (d)	49. (c)	50. (b)

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CUET (UG) Section II Science Group Domain subject Chemistry Sample Paper for online practice. Chemistry Mock Test as per latest syllabus and exam pattern for the admission in 2024 – 2025 academic session.

CUET (UG) Sample Paper : Chemistry

Instruction : Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50
Duration : 45 Minutes

Q.1: The lattice points of a crystal of hydrogen iodide are occupied by
(a) HI molecules
(b) H atoms and I atoms
(c) H⁺ cations and I⁻ anions
(d) H₂ molecules and I₂ molecules

Q.2: The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present at a cubic close packed structure is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4

Q.3: Which one is not a ferroelectric compound?
(a) KH₂PO₄
(b) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) Rochelle salt
(d) BaTiO₃

Q.4: What is the percentage of solute in the resultant solution, if it is obtained by mixing 300g of 30% and 200g of 20% solution by weight?
(a) 50%
(b) 26%
(c) 62%
(d) 32%

Q.5: The examples of minimum boiling azeotropes are
(a) aniline + acetone
(b) acetic acid + pyridine
(c) HCl + water
(d) cyclohexane + ethanol

Q.6: At 300 K two pure liquids A and B have 150 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg vapour pressures, respectively. In an equimolar liquid mixture of A and B, the mole fraction of B in the vapour mixture at this temperature is
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.4

Q.7: A 4.0 M aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and 500 mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total charge required for the complete electrolysis will be
(a) 96500 C
(b) 24125 C
(c) 48250 C
(d) 193000 C

Q.8: Galvanisation is
(a) zinc plating on aluminium sheet
(b) zinc plating on iron sheet
(c) iron plating on zinc sheet
(d) aluminium plating on zinc sheet

Q.9: Zn (s) + Cu²⁺ (aq) Zn²⁺ (aq) + Cu(s)
The above redox reaction is used in
(a) Galvanic cell
(b) Daniell cell
(c) Voltaic cell
(d) All of these

Q.10: Rate law cannot be determined from balanced chemical equation, if ……… .
(a) reverse reaction is involved
(b) it is an elementary reaction
(c) it is a sequence of elementary reactions
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.11: A first order reaction has a rate constant of 2303×10^-3 S^-1 . The time required for 40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be [Given that log₁₀ 2=0.3010]
(a) 230.3 s
(b) 301 s
(c) 2000 s
(d) 602 s

Q12: 99% completion of a first order reaction takes place in 32 min. The time taken in 99.9% completion of the reaction will be
(a) 48 min
(b) 52 min
(c) 56 min
(d) 44 min

Q.13: In the cleansing action of soaps represented by the
given figures,

Figure ‘C’ show the structure of
(a) aggregated colloids
(b) macromolecular colloids
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) multimolecular colloids

Q.14: Smoke is precipitated by the
(a) Cottrell precipitator
(b) colloidal precipitator
(c) natural precipitator
(d) Planck’s precipitator

Q.15: Butter and cream are the examples of
(a) w/o type emulsion
(b) o/w type emulsion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.16: Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
(a) Malachite
(b) Cassiterite
(c) Pyrolusite
(d) Magnetite

Q.17: Sulphide ores are common for which of the following metals.
(a) Ag, Cu and Pb
(b) Ag, Cu and Sn
(c) Ag, Mg and Pb
(d) Al, Cu and Pb

Q.18: In electrolytic refining method,
(a) the impure metal is made to act as anode
(b) a strip of the pure metal is used as cathode
(c) anode and cathode are kept in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salt of the same metal
(d) All the above are true

Q.19: Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling point?
(a) PH₃
(b) AsH₃
(c) SbH₃
(d) NH₃

Q.20: Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature?
(a) Cl₂O₇
(b) Na₂O
(c) N₂O
(d) Al₂O₃

Q.21: Which of the following are the applications of dinitrogen gas?
(a) Preservation of biological materials and food items
(b) Production of inert atmosphere in copper and steel industry
(c) In the preparation of explosives
(d) Etching of metals

Q.22: The third ionisation enthalpy is minimum form
(a) Mn
(b) Ni
(c) Co
(d) Fe

Q.23: The actinoids resemble the lanthanoids in having more compounds in
(a) +3 state
(b) +4 state
(c) +5 state
(d) +2 state

Q.24: Dichromates are generally prepared by the fusion of chromite ore with
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) potassium carbonate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.25: How many ions obtain after dissociation of this complex [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 4

Q.26: An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
(a) ruthenocene
(b) Grignard’s reagent
(c) ferrocene
(d) cobaltocene

Q.27: For lead-poisoning, the antidote used is
(a) white of an egg
(b) cis-platin
(c) nickel
(d) EDTA

Q.28: Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?
(a) Dichloromethane
(b) 1,2-dichloroethane
(c) Ethylidine chloride
(d) Allyl chloride

Q.29: What is the nature of KCN and AgCN compounds?
(a) Ionic and covalent
(b) Ionic and ionic
(c) Covalent and ionic
(d) Covalent and covalent

Q.30: Which of the following is used to prepare alkyl chloride in presence of alcohol?
(a) H₂SO₄
(b) HCl solution (dilute)
(c) dry HCl gas
(d) None of these

Q.31: Phenols show the cleavage of C— O bond with
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Zn
(d) Ca

Q.32: The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ether is as follows :
(a) HBr > HI > HCl
(b) HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HI > HBr > HCl
(d) HCl > HI > HBr

Q.33: The action of zymase is inhibited during fermentation if the percentage of alcohol formed exceeds
(a) 5%
(b) 7%
(c) 10%
(d) 14%

Q.34: Carbonyl compounds are the constituents of
(a) fabrics
(b) flavouring
(c) plastics and drugs
(d) All of these

Q.35: Which of the following compounds produces an orange-red precipitate with 2, 4-DNP reagent?
(a) Acetamide
(b) Dimethyl ether
(c) Butanone
(d) Propylbutanoate

Q.36: Which of the following acid is used in rubber, textile, dyeing, leather and electroplating industries?
(a) Hexanedioic acid
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Sodium benzoate

Q.37: Name the product(s) formed during the reaction of primary aliphatic amines with nitrous acid at room temperature?
(a) R NO2
(b) ROH
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.38: Coupling reaction is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition reaction.
(b) nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(c) electrophilic substitution reaction.
(d) electrophilic addition reaction.

Q.39: The chemical formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is
(a) HNO₂
(b) NaOH+CaO
(c) C₆H₅SO₂Cl
(d) CH₃CONH₂

Q.40: Invert sugar is a mixture of
(a) D-glucose + D-fructose
(b) L-glucose + D-fructose
(c) L-glucose + D-glucose
(d) L-glucose + L-glucose

Q.41: Which of the following is not a hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Endorphins
(c) Norepinephrine
(d) Thymine

Q.42: Water soluble vitamin is
(a) vitamin C
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin E
(d) vitamin K

Q.43: Buna-S is a
(a) natural polymer
(b) synthetic polymer
(c) semi-synthetic polymer
(d) None of these

Q.44: Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and amino caproic acid is
(a) nylon-2-nylon-6
(b) PHBV
(c) buna-N
(d) nylon-6, 6

Q.45: The type of polythene which is chemically inert and more tough and hard is
(a) HDP
(b) LDP
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) None of these

Q.46: The receptor proteins are embedded in the
(a) DNA
(b) cell membrane
(c) cytoplasm
(d) RNA

Q.47: Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservative is
(a) C₆H₅COONa
(b) table salt
(c) vegetable oils
(d) All of the above

Q.48: Noradrenaline is a/an
(a) antidepressant
(b) antihistamine
(c) neurotransmitter
(d) antacid

Q.49: Which lanthanoid does not occur naturally?
(a) Eu
(b) Pm
(c) Gd
(d) Lu

Q.50: Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths and all axial angles different from 90°?
(a) Hexagonal
(b) Monoclinic
(c) Tetragonal
(d) Triclinic

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Chemistry Sample Paper

1. (a)	2. (a)	3. (b)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (d)	7. (d)	8. (b)	9. (d)	10. (b)
11. (d)	12. (a)	13. (a)	14. (a)	15. (a)	16. (d)	17. (a)	18. (d)	19. (a)	20. (d)
21. (a)	22. (d)	23. (a)	24. (c)	25. (d)	26. (b)	27. (d)	28. (b)	29. (a)	30. (c)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (d)	34. (d)	35. (c)	36. (c)	37. (b)	38. (c)	39. (c)	40. (a)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (b)	44. (a)	45. (a)	46. (b)	47. (d)	48. (c)	49. (b)	50. (d)

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Common University Entrance Test for the admission in UG Courses CUET (UG) Physics Sample Paper for online mock practice of exam. The Physics is one of the science group subject in Section II of Test.

CUET (UG) Sample Paper : Physics

Questions : attempt any 40 Questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: If point charges Q₁ = 2×10^-7C and Q₂=3×10^-7C are at 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force between them.

(a) 2 x 10^-3 N
(b) 6 x 10^-3 N
(c) 5 x 10^-3 N
(d) 1 x 10^-3 N

Q.2: If two bodies are rubbed and one of them acquires q₁ charge and another acquires q₂ charge, then ratio of q₁ : q₂ is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) – 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 4

Q.3: Two field lines can never cross each other because
(a) field lines are closed curves
(b) field lines repels each other
(c) field lines crowded only near the charge
(d) field has a unique direction at each point

Q.4: The potential difference between a cloud and the earth is 10⁷ V. Calculate the amount of energy dissipated when the charge of 100 C is transferred from the cloud to the ground due to lightning bolt.
(a) zero
(b) 10⁹ J
(c) 60 J
(d) 10⁷ J

Q.5: Two charges 3 x 10^-8C and -2 x 10^-8 C located 15 cm apart. At what point on the line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero?
(a) 9 cm
(b) 42 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 20 cm

Q.6: What is the work done in moving a 2µC point charge from corner A to corner B of a square ABCD in figure, when a 10µC charge exists at the centre of the square?

(a) Zero
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 20

Q.7: A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω
(d) 16 Ω

Q.8: Kirchhoff’s junction rule is a reflection of
(a) conservation of current density vector
(b) conservation of charge
(c) the fact that the momentum with which a charged particle approaches a junction is unchanged (as a vector) as the charged particle leaves the junction
(d) the fact that there is a net accumulation of charges at a junction

Q.9: Determine the current drawn from source for the network shown below

(a) A
(b) A
(c) A
(d) A

Q.10: A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in the same plane with the same magnetic field B is
(a) 25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c) 200 keV
(d) 100 keV

Q.11: A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which
(a) is used to measure emf of cell
(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection type instrument that gives a deflection when a current flows through its coil

Q.12: A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil?
(a) 4 T
(b) 31 x 10^-4 T
(c) 2 x 10^-3T
(d) 10^-4T

Q.13: A natural bar magnet
(a) is always suspended in north-south direction
(b) always has two poles
(c) is made of iron and its alloys
(d) All of the above

Q.14: At a certain place, horizontal component is times the vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is
(a) zero
(b) /3
(c) /6
(d) None of these

Q.15: A magnet of dipole moment m is aligned in equilibrium position in a magnetic field of intensity B. The work done to rotate it through an angle in the magnetic field is
(a) mB sin
(b) mB cos
(c) mB (1 – cos )
(d) mB (1 – sin )

Q.16: Current in the coil is larger, when the magnet is

(a) pushed towards the coil faster
(b) pulled away from the coil faster
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q.17: In induction furnace, heat is produced due to
(a) eddy current
(b) resistance
(c) capacitor
(d) None of these

Q.18: The mutual inductance M₁₂ of coil 1 with respect to coil 2
(a) increases when they are brought nearer
(b) depends on the current passing through the coils
(c) increases when one of them is rotated about an axis
(d) is different from M₂₁ of coil 2 with respect to coil 1

Q.19: If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. What would be the average emf during a positive half-cycle?
(a) 198 V
(b) 386 V
(c) 256 V
(d) None of these

Q.20: If the frequency is doubled, what happen to the capacitive reactance and the current?
(a) Capacitive reactance is halved, the current is doubled
(b) Capacitive reactance is doubled, the current is halved
(c) Capacitive reactance and the current are halved
(d) Capacitive reactance and the current are doubled

Q.21: Which of the following current changes continuously in magnitude and periodically in direction?
(a) Direct current
(b) Induced current
(c) Alternating current
(d) Displacement current

Q.22: Out of the following options, which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
(a) A stationary charge
(b) A chargeless particle
(c) An accelerating charge
(d) A charge moving at constant velocity

Q.23: The electric field produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of 3m is (assume that the efficiency of the bulb is 2.5% and it is a point source.)
(a) 4.5 V/m
(b) 2.8 V/m
(c) 5 V/m
(d) 4.07 V/m

Q.24: In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square value of the electric field is E_rms = 6 V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is
(a) 1.41 x 10^-8 T
(b) 2.83 x 10^-8 T
(c) 0.70 x 10^-8 T
(d) 4.23 10^-8 T

Q.25: A ray of light gets reflected from the plane mirror. The incident ray and the reflected ray are perpendicular to each other. The angle of incidence is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 0°

Q.26: The nearer point of hypermetropic eye is 20 cm. Find the power of lens which can be used for its correction.
(a) + 2.5 D
(b) + 5.0 D
(c) – 1.5 D
(d) + 1.5 D

Q.27: When a light ray enters from oil to glass, then on oil-glass interface, the velocity of light changes by a factor of [given, n_oil =2, n_glass = 3/2 ]
(a)
(b)
(c) 3
(d) 1

Q.28: Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
(a) two different lamps
(b) two different lamps but of the same power
(c) two different lamps of same power and having the same colours
(d) None of the above

Q.29: If a source is at infinity, then wavefronts reaching to observer are
(a) cylindrical
(b) spherical
(c) plane
(d) conical

Q.30: If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing interference is 3 : 5, then the ratio of intensities produced by each is
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 9 : 25
(d) 25 : 9

Q.31: Which of the following can be used to control the
intensity, in sunglasses, window-panes etc?
(a) Transverse wave
(b) Polaroids
(c) Plane polarised wave
(d) Polarised wave

Q.32: The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 x 10⁷ C kg^-1. The specific charge of an a-particle will be
(a) 96. x 10⁷ C kg^-1
(b) 192 x 10⁷ C kg^-1
(c) 4.8 x 10⁷ C kg^-1
(d) 24 x 10⁷ C kg^-1

Q.33: The value of stopping potential V₀ from the given graph is

(a) – 0.54 V
(b) 0.54 V
(c) 0.2 V
(d) – 0.2 V

Q.34: If x is uncertainty in the specification of position and p is the uncertainty in specification of momentum of an electron, then the product x and p is of the order of ћ such that ћ
(a)
(b)
(c) 10^-19
(d) 10^-31

Q.35: Photoemission with visible light is possible in
(a) rubidium
(b) cesium
(c) zinc
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.36: Trajectory of an a-particle is shown in the figure below, then impact parameter is

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q.37: The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is
(a) 2 : – 1
(b) 1 : – 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : – 2

Q.38: A 12.75 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature, then wavelengths emitted are in
(a) either Paschen, Lyman or Balmer series
(b) either Brackett, Pfund or Lyman series
(c) either Paschen, Brackett or Balmer series
(d) either Lyman, Balmer or Brackett series

Q.39: Isotopes of an atom
(a) have different electronic structure
(b) does not occupy same place in periodic table
(c) contains same number of protons
(d) have same number of neutrons

Q.40: Nuclear fusion is common to the pair
I. uranium based reactor
II. hydrogen bomb
III. energy production in sun
IV. atom bomb
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both III and IV
(d) Both II and IV

Q.41: In solid state semiconductors, the number and the direction of the flow of charge carriers can be altered by
(a) illuminating light
(b) supplying heat
(c) varying applied voltage
(d) All of the above

Q.42: In the circuit shown, the voltage difference between A and B, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3V is

(a) 1.3 V
(b) 2.3 V
(c) 0
(d) 0.5 V

Q.43: In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n transistor, the phase difference between the input and the output voltages will be
(a) 90°
(b) 135°
(c) 180°
(d) 45°

Q.44: LED’s are not used for room lighting (although they are used for automobile bulbs and in industrial lighting) because
(a) our eyes are not comfortable with very intense light
(b) our eyes are not comfortable with monochromatic light
(c) LED’s are much costlier than bulbs tubelights and CFL’s
(d) LED manufacture in mass production will be a very polluting process

Q.45: A modern communication system acts as a
(a) transmitter
(b) receiver
(c) messenger
(d) None of these

Q.46: A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication cannot receive direct waves due to
(a) its low frequency
(b) curvature of earth
(c) its high intensity
(d) smaller antenna

Q.47: Radio waves are propagated through
(a) ground wave
(b) sky wave
(c) space wave
(d) All of these

Q.48: Two field lines can never cross each other because
(a) field lines are closed curves
(b) field lines repels each other
(c) field lines crowded only near the charge
(d) field has a unique direction at each point

Q.49: A singal spreads over a range of frequencies called
(a) signal bandwidth
(b) signal baseband
(c) signal audio frequency
(d) signal video frequency

Q.50: A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length of 0.4 m. The distance at which you hold the mirror from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification of 5 is
(a) 0.16 m
(b) 1.60 m
(c) 0.32 m
(d) 0.24 m

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Physics Sample Paper

1. (b)	2. (c)	3. (d)	4. (b)	5. (a)	6. (a)	7. (d)	8. (b)	9. (b)	10. (d)
11. (d)	12. (b)	13. (d)	14. (c)	15. (c)	16. (c)	17. (a)	18. (a)	19. (a)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (c)	23. (d)	24. (b)	25. (c)	26. (b)	27. (a)	28. (d)	29. (c)	30. (c)
31. (b)	32. (c)	33. (a)	34. (a)	35. (d)	36. (b)	37. (b)	38. (a)	39. (c)	40. (b)
41. (d)	42. (b)	43. (c)	44. (b)	45. (c)	46. (b)	47. (d)	48. (d)	49. (a)	50. (c)

For more Physics Sample Paper : CUET Sample Paper Archives

CUET (UG) Exam Section II Domain Subject Accountancy Sample Paper for online mock practice. Solved Practice set of Account as per latest syllabus and exam pattern is very useful for upcoming 2024-2025 academic session.

Sample Paper : CUET (UG) Accountancy

Instruction : Attempt any 40 questions, out of 50.
Total Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: Donation can be
(a) general donation
(b) specific donation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.2: Receipt and payment account shows
(a) income and expenditure
(b) profit and loss
(c) saving and deficit
(d) cash receipts and payments

Q.3: Debit balance in receipts and payments account was shown as 80,000, subscription received amounted to 9,600 out of which 3,000 is related to next year. According to you, what amount will be shown in receipts and payments account?
(a) 80,000
(b) 89,600
(c) 9,600
(d) 86,600

Q.4: Why a partnership firm needs partnership deed?
(a) It acts as a proof in any dispute
(b) It regulates rights of partners
(c) It represents duties and liabilities of partners
(d) All of the above

Q.5: Where a partner is entitled to interest on capital contributed by him, such interest will be payable
(a) only out of profits
(b) only out of capital
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.6: A partner withdrew 4,000 per month from 1st July, 2020, on beginning of every month. Accounts are closed at 31st March, 2021. Calculate interest on drawings while rate of interest is 10% per annum.
(a) 1,600
(b) 1,800
(c) 1,500
(d) 2,200

Q.7: When goodwill is not purchased, goodwill account can
(a) never be raised in the books
(b) be raised in thebooks
(c) be partially raised in the books
(d) be raised as per the agreement of the partners

Q.8: Weighted average method of calculating goodwill is used when
(a) profits are not equal
(b) profits show a trend
(c) profits are fluctuating
(d) None of these

Q.9: A firm earns 1,20,000 as its annual profits. The normal rate of profit being 10%. Assets of firm are 14,40,000 and liabilities are 4,40,000. Find value of goodwill by capitalisation method.
(a) 4,00,000
(b) 2,80,000
(c) 2,00,000
(d) 3,60,000

Q.10: Calculate new profit sharing ratio.
(a) 5 : 4 : 2
(b) 5 : 4 : 1
(c) 3 : 4 : 3
(d) None of these

Q.11: After reconstitution, the ratio in which all the partners share future profits and losses is called
(a) new ratio
(b) old ratio
(c) sacrificing ratio
(d) gaining ratio

Q.12: A and B are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses 2 : 3. With effect from 1st April, 2022, they decided to share profits and loss equally. What will be B’s gain/sacrifice?
(a) Gain 1/5
(b) Sacrifice 1/5
(c) Gain 1/10
(d) Sacrifice 1/10

Q.13: Reserve or general reserve appearing in the balance sheet will be divided among old partners during admission in ………… ratio.
(a) gaining
(b) new
(c) sacrificing
(d) old

Q.14: …… goodwill is the excess of desired total capital of firm over the actual combined capital of all partners.
(a) Premium
(b) Share
(c) Hidden
(d) Old

Q.15: X and Y share profits in the ratio pf 3 : 2. Z was admitted as a partner who gets 1/5 share. New profit sharing ratio, if Z acquires 3/20 from X and 1/20 from Y would be
(a) 9 : 7 : 4
(b) 8 : 8 : 4
(c) 6 : 10 : 4
(d) 10 : 6 : 4

Q.16: Decrease in liability at the time of retirement of partner is
(a) debited to revaluation account
(b) credited to revaluation account
(c) debited to goodwill account
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.17: The ratio in which the retiring partner’s share of goodwill is debited to the capital accounts of continuing partners’ is
(a) old ratio
(b) new ratio
(c) gaining ratio
(d) sacrificing ratio

Q.18: A, B and C are partners with capitals 1,00,000, 75,000 and 50,000 respectively. On C’s retirement, his share is acquired by A and B in ratio of 5 : 3. Gaining ratio will be
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 2
(c) 5 : 3
(d) None of these

Q.19: Partners may dissolve a firm by mutual agreement. This is specified in Section ……… of the Act.
(a) 39
(b) 40
(c) 41
(d) 42

Q.20: At the time of dissolution of a partnership firm, the provision for doubtful debts is transferred to which account?
(a) Realisation account
(b) Partner’s capital account
(c) Cash account
(d) None of the above

Q.21: Realisation account is prepared at the time of …… .
(a) admission of a partner
(b) change in profit sharing ratio
(c) dissolution of a firm
(d) dissolution of partnership only

Q.22: Companies Act is governed by
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) Partnership Act
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Q.23: Which amongst the following shares conter voting rights on its holders?
(a) Equity shares
(b) Redeemable preference shares
(c) Participatory preference shares
(d) None of the above

Q.24: Shares for consideration other than cash can be issued at
(a) par
(b) premium
(c) discount
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.25: The balance of sinking fund investment account after the realisation of investments is transferred to
(a) statement of profit and loss
(b) debentures account,
(c) sinking fund account
(d) None of the above

Q.26: Name the sub-head under which the ‘premium on redemption of debentures’ appears in the balance sheet?
(a) Shareholders’ fund
(b) Non-current liabilities
(c) Long-term borrowings
(d) None of the above

Q.27: Discount on issue of debentures is
(a) capital loss
(b) capital income
(c) revenue loss
(d) revenue income

Q.28: Which of the following is not included under the head shareholders’ fund?
(a) Share capital
(b) Reserves and surplus
(c) Money received against share warrants
(d) Long-term provisions

Q.29: Securities premium reserve is shown on the liabilities side in the balance sheet under the head
(a) reserves and surplus
(b) general reserve
(c) share capital
(d) current liabilities

Q.30: Livestock is a item of ……… assets under sub-head fixed assets and the major head non-current assets.
(a) intangible
(b) inventories
(c) trade receivables
(d) tangible

Q.31: Horizontal analysis provides information in
(a) absolute terms
(b) percentage terms
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) different terms

Q.32: Sumatra limited wants to assess the future profit earning capacity of its business. It will conduct
(a) external analysis
(b) short-term analysis
(c) long-term analysis
(d) None of these

Q.33: The most commonly used tools for financial analysis are
(a) horizontal analysis
(b) vertical analysis
(c) ratio analysis
(d) All of these

Q.34: …… ratios are a measure of the speed with which various accounts are converted into revenue from operations or cash.
(a) Activity
(b) Liquidity
(c) Debt
(d) Profitability

Q.35: The immediate solvency ratio is
(a) quick ratio
(b) current ratio
(c) debtors turnover ratio
(d) stock turnover ratio

Q.36: ABC Co. extends credit terms of 45 days to its customers. Its credit collection would be considered poor if its average collection period was
(a) 30 days
(b) 36 days
(c) 47 days
(d) 37 days

Q.37: What is highly liquid investment?
(a) Cash convertible investment
(b) Short-term investment
(c) Cash equivalents
(d) None of the above

Q.38: Mention the net amount of source or use of cash when a fixed asset (having book value 1,20,000) is sold at a loss of 40,000 in term of cash flow.
(a) 1,20,000
(b) 40,000
(c) 80,000
(d) 1,60,000

Q.39: Cash flow statement activities consists of
(a) operating Profit
(b) decrease/increase in current assets
(c) decrease/increase in current assets
(d) All of the above

Q.40: Modern computerized accounting system is based on the concept of
(a) software
(b) hardware
(c) database
(d) spreadsheets

Q.41: …………. is an integrated set of objects that constitute the report.
(a) Front-end interface
(b) Back-end database
(c) Data processing
(d) Reporting system

Q.42: Name the software used for controlling internal functions, such as reading data input devices.
(a) System software
(b) Application software
(c) Connectivity software
(d) None of the above

Q.43: Which of the following is an accounting software?
(a) Tally
(b) Microsoft Office
(c) Photoshop
(d) Notepad

Q.44: With the help of ………. voucher, all outflows of money are recorded.
(a) received
(b) payment
(c) contra
(d) journal

Q.45: The balance sheet is prepared as per the
(a) Schedule I
(b) Schedule II
(c) Schedule III
(d) Schedule lV

Q.46: For which of the following sectors, DBMS will be useful?
(a) Universities
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Human resources
(d) All of the above

Q.47: MS Access is a
(a) customised software
(b) relational DBMS
(c) operating system
(d) All of the above

Q.48: Which of the following is not a function of database management system?
(a) Data storage management
(b) Data dictionary management
(c) Recording accounting data
(d) Recovery management

Q.49: Spreadsheets are also known as
(a) worksheets
(b) paper sheet
(c) notebook
(d) All of these

Q.50: In the given syntax, (rate, nper, pv, fv) nper means
(a) number of years
(b) principal amount
(c) interest rate
(d) number of payment period for an investment

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Accountancy Sample Paper

1. (c)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (d)	5. (a)	6. (c)	7. (a)	8. (b)	9. (c)	10. (c)
11. (a)	12. (d)	13. (d)	14. (c)	15. (a)	16. (b)	17. (c)	18. (c)	19. (b)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (d)	23. (a)	24. (d)	25. (c)	26. (c)	27. (a)	28. (d)	29. (a)	30. (d)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (d)	34. (a)	35. (a)	36. (c)	37. (c)	38. (c)	39. (d)	40. (c)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (a)	44. (b)	45. (c)	46. (d)	47. (b)	48. (c)	49. (a)	50. (d)

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Common University Entrance Test : CUET (UG) Section II Commerce Group Domain specific subject Economic solved Sample Paper for free Mock practice. Economics Solved practice paper as per latest syllabus and exam pattern is very useful for admission in academic session 2024-2025.

Economics : Sample paper for CUET (UG)

Questions : Attempt any 40 questions out of the below given 50 questions
Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: Who is the father of economics?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Alfred Marshall

Q.2: Economics cost is equal to
(a) accounting cost
(b) opportunity cost
(c) sum of accounting cost and opportunity cost
(d) difference of accounting cost and opportunity cost

Q.3: Which one of the following is not the feature of socialist economy?
(a) Social welfare
(b) Freedom of enterprise
(c) Public ownership
(d) Planning mechanism

Q.4: Technique of production is focused in which central problem of economy?
(a) What to produce?
(b) How to produce?
(c) For whom to produce?
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.5: When total utility increases at a diminishing rate, marginal utility will be
(a) increasing
(b) diminishing
(c) constant
(d) diminishing but positive

Q.6: According to cardinal measurement of utility
(a) Utility is quantitative
(b) Utility is qualitative
(c) Utility is both quantitative and qualitative
(d) Utility is constant

Q.7: In accordance with the relationship between Total Utility and Marginal Utility, when MU is negative, then
(a) TU increases
(b) TU decreases
(c) TU remains constant
(d) TU becomes zero

Q.8: Law of Equi-Marginal utility is a law of
(a) Production of Wealth
(b) Consumption of Wealth
(c) Distribution of Wealth
(d) Exchange of Wealth

Q.9: Which of the following is/are determinants of demand?
(a) Price of the good
(b) Income of the consumer
(c) Price of related goods
(d) All of the above

Q.10: If the price elasticity of demand ranges between 0 and less than 1, demand is
(a) inelastic
(b) elastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) unit elastic

Q.11: If a 10% rise in price of Good X leads to 20% fall in its quantity demanded, its elasticity of demand is
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) unitary elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic

Q.12: What will be the elasticity of demand if price and total expenditure moves in the opposite direction using total outlay method?
(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Elastic
(d) None of these

Q.13: Average Product (AP) is at its maximum when
(a) MP > AP
(b) MP < AP
(c) MP = AP
(d) MP becomes negative

Q.14: Payment made to outsiders for their goods and services are called …… .
(a) opportunity cost
(b) real cost
(c) explicit cost
(d) implicit cost

Q.15: If AR is 40 per unit from the sale of 3 goods and it is 30 per unit from the sale of 4 goods. Find the marginal revenue of 4th unit of goods.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 0

Q.16: In which time period, all factors of production become variable and factors of production change with the change in level of production?
(a) Long period
(b) Market period
(c) Short period
(d) All of these

Q.17: The supply curve is usually
(a) upward rising
(b) downward sloping
(c) nothing definite can be said
(d) None of the above

Q.18: When supply is perfectly inelastic, Elasticity of Supply is equal to
(a) – 1
(b) zero
(c) 1
(d) infinity

Q.19: As you are aware of recent outbreak of Covid-19, which has a led to lockdown in many countries around the globe. In extension of this, government has stopped imports in India from various countries. How it will impact supply of a good concerned?
(a) Expansion in quantity supply
(b) Contraction in quantity supply
(c) Increase in supply
(d) Decrease in supply

Q.20: The supply of a good refers to
(a) Actual production of goods
(b) Total stock of goods
(c) Stock available for sale
(d) Amount of goods offered for sale at a particular price per unit time

Q.21: Monopolist can determine …… .
(a) price
(b) output
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.22: Which of the following is/are the features of monopoly form of market?
(a) Restrictions on entry of new firms
(b) No close substitutes
(c) Full control over price
(d) All of the above

Q.23: Which of the following is/are broad market forms based on the level of competition?
(i) Perfect competition
(ii) Imperfect competition
(iii) Monopolistic competition
(iv) Oligopoly competition
Choose the most appropriate option
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q.24: ………… form of market demand curve is perfectly elastic in nature.
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly market
(c) Monopolistic market
(d) Oligopoly market

Q.25: Price ceiling means …… price of a commodity that the sellers can charge from the buyers.
(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Any
(d) None of the above

Q.26: Which price is expected to exist when the forces of supply and demand have fully adjusted themselves?
(a) Market price
(b) Price ceiling
(c) Floor price
(d) Normal price

Q.27: Price ceiling and price floor are part of
(a) direct action
(b) indirect action
(c) associated action
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.28: If in an industry, demand and supply will not intersect in positive quadrant, then it is called
(a) illegal industry
(b) viable industry
(c) non-viable industry
(d) sick industry

Q.29: The process of adding to physical stock of capital is
known as
(a) investment
(b) savings
(c) capital formation
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.30: Which one of the following is not true?
(a) GNP = GDP + Depreciation
(b) NNP = GNP + Depreciation
(c) NDP = GNP – Depreciation – NFIA
(d) GNP = NDP + Depreciation + NFIA

Q.31: Increase in stock of capital is known as
(a) Capital Loss
(b) Capital Profit
(c) Capital Formation
(d) None of these

Q.32: Which of the following is not included in the calculation of gross national product?
(a) Purchase and sale of old commodities
(b) Intermediate commodities
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of the above

Q.33: Net export is zero when
(a) export is zero
(b) import is zero
(c) exports = imports
(d) All of these

Q.34: Induced investment………… related to the level of income in an economy
(a) positively
(b) inversely
(c) not
(d) Can’t say

Q.35: During excess demand, Central Bank will
(a) increase margin requirement
(b) decrease margin requirement
(c) keep margin requirement constant
(d) keep margin requirement zero

Q.36: Investment is an addition to …… .
(a) supply
(b) current stock
(c) capital stock
(d) None of these

Q.37: Plastic money includes
(a) debit cards
(b) credit cards
(c) prepaid cash cards
(d) All of the above

Q.38: Which of the following is/are functions of Central Bank?
(a) Bank of issue
(b) Credit control
(c) Banker of Banks
(d) All of these

Q.39: Credit creation depends on
(a) initial level of deposit
(b) money multiplier
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.40: Which of following measures of money supply are considered as monetary base?
(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4

Q.41: …… taxes do not depend on the level of income.
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Progressive
(d) Lumpsum

Q.42: If borrowings and other liabilities are added to the budget deficit, we get
(a) fiscal deficit
(b) primary deficit
(c) capital deficit
(d) revenue deficit

Q.43: The non-tax revenue in the following is …… .
(a) export duty
(b) import duty
(c) dividends
(d) excise

Q.44: A …… is a legally compulsory payment imposed by the government on the households and producers.
(a) penalty
(b) fine
(c) fees
(d) tax

Q.45: Which items are excluded in BoT, but included in BoP?
(a) Visible items
(b) Invisible items
(c) Private capital
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.46: Buying and selling of foreign currencies take place at
(a) goods market
(b) gold market
(c) foreign exchange market
(d) All of these

Q.47: Balance of payments deficit is calculated by taking into account the …… only.
(a) accommodating transactions
(b) autonomous transactions
(c) unilateral transactions
(d) None of these

Q.48: In case of currency appreciation, the domestic currency becomes …… .
(a) less valuable
(b) more valuable
(c) rise
(d) fall

Q.49: Which one of the following is not the feature of socialist economy?
(a) Social welfare
(b) Freedom of enterprise
(c) Public ownership
(d) Planning mechanism

Q.50: If MPC = 1, the value of multiplier is …… .
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Between 0 and 1
(d) infinity

Answer Key : CUET Economic Sample Paper

1. (c)	2. (c)	3. (b)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (a)	7. (b)	8. (b)	9. (d)	10. (a)
11. (a)	12. (c)	13. (c)	14. (c)	15. (d)	16. (a)	17. (a)	18. (b)	19. (d)	20. (d)
21. (c)	22. (d)	23. (a)	24. (a)	25. (b)	26. (d)	27. (a)	28. (c)	29. (d)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (a)	36. (c)	37. (d)	38. (d)	39. (c)	40. (c)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (c)	44. (d)	45. (d)	46. (c)	47. (b)	48. (b)	49. (b)	50. (d)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) Economic Sample Paper for Mock practice of upcoming exams.

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CUET (UG) Entrance Exam Section II Commerce Group Domain Subject Business Studies Sample Paper for free online practice. This practice mock test is as per latest syllabus and very useful for the admission for the session 2024-2025.

Sample Paper : Business Studies

Number of Questions : attempt any 40, out of 50 questions
Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: Management can be considered as
(a) an art
(b) a science
(c) Both art and science
(d) None of the above

Q.2: Which of the following highlights the importance of coordination?
(a) Growth in size
(b) Functional differentiation
(c) Specialisation
(d) All of the above

Q.3: CEO is at which level of management in a company?
(a) All levels of management
(b) Supervisory level of management
(c) Middle level of management
(d) Top level of management

Q.4: Which objectives of management deals with the commitment of an organisation towards the society?
(a) Personal objectives
(b) Social objectives
(c) Organisational objectives
(d) Economic objectives

Q.5: Who gave the concept of scientific management?
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) Seymour
(c) Philip Kotler
(d) F W Taylor

Q.6: Under which system of wage payment, wages are paid on the basis of work done?
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Motion study
(c) Time study
(d) Differential piece wage system

Q.7: Name the principle of scientific management which emphasised that there should be complete harmony between the management and workers.
(a) Harmony, not discord
(b) Cooperation, not individualism
(c) Science, not rule of thumb
(d) Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency

Q.8: Management should find ‘One best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this statement?
(a) Time study
(b) Motion study
(c) Fatigue study
(d) Method study

Q.9: What is included in legal environment of business?
(a) Several acts passed by government
(b) Court judgements
(c) Statutory warning prescribed under law
(d) All of the above

Q.10: Obstacles to privatization are
(a) opposition by laborer’s
(b) problem of financing
(c) political pressure
(d) All of the above

Q.11: ‘‘Nothing can be said with certainty about the factors of business environment’’. Why?
(a) Because business environment is simple
(b) Because business environment is dynamic
(c) Because business environment is certain
(d) Because business environment is inter-related

Q.12: Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi initiated and coined the slogan “Make in India.” Which dimension of business environment does this pertain to?
(a) Economic environment
(b) Political environment
(c) Legal environment
(d) Social environment

Q.13: Name the most critical step in the process of planning.
(a) Implementing the plan
(b) Developing the plan
(c) Selecting the best possible course of action
(d) None of the above

Q.14: Name the type of plan in which the move of competitors is considered.
(a) Budget
(b) Rule
(c) Strategy
(d) Method

Q.15: Which of these is not a feature of planning?
(a) Futuristic
(b) Mental exercise
(c) Reduces overlapping
(d) Continuous process

Q.16: A company wants to introduce a new product. What type of plan should it prepare?
(a) Objective
(b) Strategy
(c) Policy
(d) None of these

Q.17: The organisation process starts with
(a) assignment of duties
(b) establishing reporting relationships
(c) identification and division of work
(d) departmentalisation

Q.18: Which of the following is not an importance of delegation of authority?
(a) Effective management
(b) Relief to top-managers
(c) Facilitation of growth
(d) Basis of management hierarchy

Q.19: Organising can be defined as
(a) a structure
(b) a process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) a function of planning

Q.20: What explains informal organisation the best?
(a) All departments in an organisation reports to a coordinating head
(b) Network of personal and social relationships that arise as people associate with other people in a work environment
(c) This structure is created intentionally by the managers for achievement of organisational goal
(d) None of the above

Q.21: Which of these involve shifting of an employee from one job to another?
(a) Apprenticeship programmes
(b) Coaching
(c) Internship training
(d) Job rotation

Q.22: The process of introducing the selected employee to other employees and making him familiar with rules and policies of the organisation is known as
(a) Orientation
(b) Compensation
(c) Promotion
(d) Career planning

Q.23: Which is the first step of the process of staffing?
(a) Estimation of manpower requirement
(b) Recruitment
(c) Selection
(d) Performance appraisal

Q.24: Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Staffing is a never ending process.
(b) Effective staffing ensures success of the organisation.
(c) HRM is both a line and staff activity.
(d) Recruitment and staffing are one and the same thing.

Q.25: Name the barrier which is related to the personality of sender and receiver.
(a) Semantic barrier
(b) Psychological barrier
(c) Organisational barrier
(d) Personal barrier

Q.26: A good leader should have
(a) physical qualities
(b) good communication skills
(c) motivation skills
(d) All of the above

Q.27: Which one of the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Delegation
(d) Supervision

Q.28: Mr. Shriram, the manager of W Ltd. explains a worker about operations to be carried out by him on a hi-tech machine. Which element of directing is highlighted?
(a) Motivation
(b) Leadership
(c) Communication
(d) Supervision

Q.29: Budgetary control requires the preparation of
(a) training schedule
(b) budgets
(c) network diagram
(d) responsibility centres

Q.30: In controlling process, the next stage after setting performance standards is
(a) measurement of actual performance
(b) comparing actual performance with standards
(c) analysing deviations
(d) taking corrective action

Q.31: An efficient control system helps to
(a) judge accuracy of standards
(b) boost employee morale
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.32: Which of the following is not an importance of controlling?
(a) Judging accuracy of standards
(b) Effective use of resources
(c) Ensures order and discipline
(d) Exploitation of resources

Q.33: Financial management helps in
(a) reducing the cost of funds
(b) keeping the risks under control
(c) achieving effective deployment of funds
(d) All of the above

Q.34: Financial leverage is called favourable if
(a) return on investment is lower than the cost of debt
(b) ROI is higher than the cost of debt
(c) debt is easily available
(d) if the degree of existing financial leverage is low

Q.35: The impact of financial leverage on the profitability of a business can be seen through which analysis?
(a) EBT-EPS
(b) EAT-EPS
(c) EBIT-EPS
(d) EBIT-EBT

Q.36: Long-term financial planning is done for
(a) zero to one year
(b) more than one year
(c) ten to twenty years
(d) twenty to thirty years

Q.37: MD of Perk Ltd., Paul suggested that since the economy is buoyant, the company should invest in ……… market to take advantage of economy.
(a) primary market
(b) secondary market
(c) money market
(d) capital market

Q.38: Clearing and settlement operations of NSE are carried out by
(a) NSDL
(b) NSCCL
(c) SBI
(d) CDSL

Q.39: Which market helps in channelising surplus funds into the most productive uses?
(a) Financial market
(b) Wholesale market
(c) Retail market
(d) None of these

Q.40: Stock exchange helps in
(a) providing liquidity to existing securities
(b) contributing to economic growth
(c) pricing of securities
(d) All of the above

Q.41: Computer education is an example of ……… being marketed.
(a) ideas
(b) information
(c) experience
(d) services

Q.42: Abhinav Mehta, Marketing Manager of Roop Cosmetics, is facing the problem of poor sales.
What mode of communication he can adopt to target the large population?
(a) Newspaper
(b) Television
(c) Radio
(d) All of these

Q.43: The function of marketing, concerned with informing the customers about the firm’s product is
(a) market analysis
(b) standardisation
(c) promotion
(d) grading

Q.44: Which of the following is the function of marketing?
(a) Gathering and analysing market information
(b) Marketing planning
(c) Standardisation and grading
(d) All of the above

Q.45: The Consumer Protection Act provides a number of reliefs to the consumers including replacement of the product, removal of defect in the product, compensation paid for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer, etc. Identify the right of consumer.
(a) Right to be informed
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Q.46: Saumya purchased a watch from a Titan Gallery.
As a proof of purchase, what she should ask for?
(a) Invoice
(b) Cash memo
(c) Warranty card
(d) None of these

Q.47: When the value of goods and services, along with compensation claimed is more than 10 crore, then the complaint can be filed in …… .
(a) State Commission
(b) National Commission
(c) District Commission
(d) None of the above

Q.48: In what way the objective of consumer protection can be achieved?
(a) Self-regulation by business
(b) Business associations
(c) Government
(d) All of the above

Q.49: Set of beliefs that provide standards which guide behavior is known as
(a) Attitude
(b) Values
(c) Motivation
(d) None of these

Q.50: An entrepreneur is
(a) born
(b) made
(c) Either born or made
(d) All of these

Answer Key : CUET Business Studies Sample Paper

1. (c)	2. (d)	3. (d)	4. (b)	5. (d)	6. (d)	7. (a)	8. (d)	9. (d)	10. (d)
11. (b)	12. (b)	13. (c)	14. (c)	15. (c)	16. (b)	17. (c)	18. (b)	19. (c)	20. (b)
21. (d)	22. (a)	23. (a)	24. (d)	25. (d)	26. (d)	27. (c)	28. (d)	29. (b)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (d)	33. (d)	34. (b)	35. (c)	36. (b)	37. (d)	38. (b)	39. (a)	40. (d)
41. (d)	42. (d)	43. (c)	44. (d)	45. (c)	46. (b)	47. (b)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (b)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) entrance test Business Studies Sample Paper. Best wishes for upcoming 2024 -2025 exams.

For more Business Studies Paper : CUET Sample Paper Archives

CUET (UG) Entrance Exam Section II Domain Commerce : Subject Entrepreneurship Sample Paper for free Mock Practice for upcoming academic session 2024-2025 admission Test.

CUET Sample Paper : Entrepreneurship

Number of Questions : Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
Time : 45 Minutes

Q.1: The process of entrepreneurship which involves the translation of a useful idea into an application is called
(a) incubation
(b) innovation
(c) verification
(d) illumination

Q.2: The various sources of idea fields are
(a) Natural resources
(b) Service related
(c) Trading related
(d) All of these

Q.3: Which of the following is not a public sector enterprise?
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Public corporation
(c) Sole trader ship
(d) Government company

Q.4: The board of directors of a joint stock company is elected by
(a) general public
(b) government bodies
(c) shareholders
(d) employees

Q.5: Farhan Akhtar driving Royal Enfield bike in ‘Bhaag Milkha Bhaag’ is an example of
(a) product placement
(b) promotion
(c) testimonials
(d) core selling strategies

Q.6: Which sales strategy allows a business to cover a wide geographical market and to sell to a large customer base?
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Promotional
(d) None of these

Q.7: The advantages of franchising for a franchiser is/are
(a) quick expansion
(b) cost advantage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.8: The main ingredients of a franchise agreement
(a) contract explanation
(b) operations manual
(c) proprietary statements
(d) All of the above

Q.9: At break-even level,
(a) Total Revenue > Total Expenses
(b) Total Revenue = Total Expenses
(c) Total Revenue < Total Expanses
(d) None of the above

Q.10: A company uses 300 units of an item per day and the order lead time is 5 days. What should be the level of inventory when a new order is to be placed?
(a) 1,500 units
(b) 1,000 units
(c) 500 units
(d) 2,000 units

Q.11: Internal sources of finance include
(a) trade credit
(b) equity shares
(c) public deposit
(d) All of these

Q.12: Benefits of raising finance through public issue include
(a) higher valuations
(b) incentives
(c) liquidity
(d) All of these

Q.13: According to the ‘PESTEL Model’, which factor emphasises the production of goods with minimum environmental damage?
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Ecological
(d) Technological

Q.14: Entrepreneurs should take advantage of social networking tools like social network sites i.e., Facebook, Instagram, etc. to identify new trends. This is an example of
(a) read trends
(b) talk trends
(c) think trends
(d) watch trends

Q.15: ……… plan is that part of the business plan which describes the proposed venture’s opted form of ownership.
(a) Operational
(b) Production
(c) Organisational
(d) Business venture

Q.16: The process of initiating production in accordance with pre-conceived production plan is said to be … .
(a) routing
(b) scheduling
(c) dispatching
(d) inspection

Q.17: The ‘Marketing strategy’ and ‘Action plan’ comprise of decisions pertaining to which of the following?
(a) Potential hazards present in the competitive environment
(b) Product, place, price, promotion
(c) Customer’s characteristics
(d) Quantifying goals of the organisation

Q.18: ‘How products/services will be distributed, priced and marketed’ is described by which of the following components of a business plan?
(a) Marketing plan
(b) Production plan
(c) Operational plan
(d) Financial plan

Q.19: The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are
(a) twenty
(b) ten
(c) fifty
(d) two

Q.20: In which of the following is the reason for mergers and acquisitions?
(a) Synergy
(b) Acquiring new technology
(c) Acquiring a competency
(d) All of the above

Q.21: Which of the following types of franchises provide an organisation with the right to manufacture a product and sell it to the public, using the franchisor’s name and trademark?
(a) Product franchise business opportunity
(b) Manufacturing franchise opportunity
(c) Business franchise opportunity ventures
(d) Business format franchise opportunity

Q.22: While ensuring the growth of his enterprise, an entrepreneur has to play the dual role of a ……… .
(a) manager
(b) leader
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.23: The main ingredients of a franchise agreement
(a) contract explanation
(b) operations manual
(c) proprietary statements
(d) All of the above

Q.24: As per SEBI guidelines, if the company does not receive 90% of the issue amount from public subscription within ……….. from the date of issue, the amount received is required to be refunded.
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 150 days

Q.25: The goal of a ……… merger is to create a new larger organisation with more market share.
(a) conglomerate
(b) horizontal
(c) market extension
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.26: …………….. indicates the percentage of return on total capital employed in the business.
(a) Return on investment
(b) Return on equity
(c) Re-order quantity
(d) None of the above

Q.27: Sales strategy is important because
(a) it creates awareness about business environment
(b) it helps in measuring short-term performance of sales team
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Q.28: Measure of unit in which the products are sold, is called
(a) unit cost
(b) unit of sale
(c) unit price
(d) None of these

Q.29: Which amongst the following is/are example(s) of current liabilities?
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Bills receivables
(d) Prepaid expenses

Q.30: XYZ Company uses 500 units of an item per day and the order lead time is 7 days. Re-order level will be
(a) 1,000 units
(b) 500 units
(c) 3,500 units
(d) None of these

Q.31: A merger between Fiat and Tata motors would be an example of
(a) conglomerate merger
(b) vertical merger
(c) horizontal merger
(d) market extension

Q.32: In the capital market, funds are raised through
(a) debt
(b) equity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.33: In which type of acquisition, a private company takes over a public company?
(a) Friendly acquisition
(b) Reverse acquisition
(c) Hostile acquisition
(d) Backflip acquisition

Q.34: In which of the following from of merger, two entities combine together and form a new entity,
extinguishing both the existing entities?
(a) Absorption
(b) Amalgamation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q.35: ‘Brand’ word has originated from the word ‘Brandr’ which means ‘to burn’ in
(a) French
(b) German
(c) Norwegian
(d) None of these

Q.36: Which of the following is the consumer sale promotion activity?
(a) Loyalty reward programmes
(b) Event sponsorship
(c) Competitions
(d) Corporate entertainment

Q.37: Cocu is a soft drink company. It sells 200 ml bottle for 8 and 2,000 ml bottle for 55. The company follows which strategy?
(a) Cost-plus pricing
(b) Pentration pricing
(c) Creaming
(d) Variable pricing

Q.38: ‘It is an artificial person created by law’ is a characteristic of which of the follow forms of business organisation?
(a) Company
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.39: …………….. act as the key visual component of an enterprise’s overall brand identity.
(a) Brand name
(b) Logo
(c) Tagline
(d) Packaging

Q.40: Which of the following elements of plan relates to evaluation and appraisal of work performed?
(a) Dispatching
(b) Routing
(c) Scheduling
(d) Follow-up

Q.41: Vani, Shiva, Bhanu and Kumar are good friends. They are the students of Class IX and are studying in the same school. They were admitted at the age of 5 years and did not fail in any class. They want to start a retail business. Can they form a partnership?
(a) They can form a partnership after taking permission for the parents.
(b) They can form a partnership after taking permission from their school principal.
(c) They can form a partnership because they are more than two persons.
(d) No, they cannot form a partnership because all of them are minors.

Q.42: In which of the following forms of business organisation there exists separation of ownership from management?
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.43: The various sources of idea fields are
(a) Natural resources
(b) Service related
(c) Trading related
(d) All of these

Q.44: Which of the following forms of business organisations require minimum two persons to start the same?
(i) Sole proprietorship
(ii) Partnership
(iii) Private company
(iv) Public company
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Q.45: “X Y Z + = , where Z is a new company”. It shows
(a) absorption
(b) amalgamation
(c) acquisition
(d) None of the above

Q.46: Annual consumption of units in Aahaar Limited = 2,000 units, Buying cost per order = 12 Price per unit = 1,000, Storage cost as percentage of price per unit = 12%, EOQ = ?
(a) 400 units
(b) 20 units
(c) 200 units
(d) 100 units

Q.47: The business of partnership firm can be carried out by all the partners or any one of them acting for all. This highlights the following characteristic of partnership.
(a) Agreement
(b) Utmost good faith
(c) Mutual agency
(d) Implied authority

Q.48: Finance raised by issue of ADRs and GDRs is said to be raised from …………….. .
(a) internal sources
(b) external sources
(c) either internal or external sources
(d) None of the above

Q.49: A …………….. is either a tangible or an intangible offering that is required to satisfy the needs and aspirations of a consumer.
(a) service
(b) goods
(c) product
(d) None of these

Q.50: Which of the following is/are the examples of venture capital institutions in India?
(a) Gujarat Venture Finance Limited (GVFL)
(b) Technology Development and Information Company of India Limited (TDICIL)
(c) Andhra Pradesh Industrial Development Corporation
(d) All of the above

Answer Key : CUET Entrepreneurship Sample Paper

1. (b)	2. (d)	3. (c)	4. (a)	5. (b)	6. (c)	7. (c)	8. (d)	9. (b)	10. (a)
11. (b)	12. (d)	13. (c)	14. (b)	15. (c)	16. (c)	17. (b)	18. (a)	19. (c)	20. (d)
21. (b)	22. (c)	23. (d)	24. (c)	25. (d)	26. (a)	27. (c)	28. (b)	29. (b)	30. (c)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (b)	34. (b)	35. (c)	36. (a)	37. (d)	38. (a)	39. (b)	40. (d)
41. (a)	42. (c)	43. (d)	44. (d)	45. (b)	46. (b)	47. (c)	48. (a)	49. (c)	50. (d)

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) Commerce Group Subject Entrepreneurship Sample Paper.

For more CUET Entrepreneurship Sample Paper : CUET Sample Paper Archives

CUET (UG) Section III General Test Paper consist 75 questions from General Intelligence and Reasoning, Math’s, General Knowledge, General Awareness, and Current affairs. A Model CUET General Test Practice Paper for the practice of upcoming entrance exam for the admission in academic session 2024 -2025 are given below.

Model Practice Paper : CUET General Test

Reasoning Question : CUET General Test Practice Paper

Q.1: In a certain code language, ‘GOLD’ is written as ‘HPME’, and ‘FAKE’ is written as ‘GBLF’. How will ‘SOAP’ be written in that language?
A. TPQB
B. TBPQ
C. PTBQ
D. TPBQ

Q.2: Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.
64*4*3*71*19*5*43
A. -, +, x, =, -, x
B.
C. x, +, =, -, x, –
D.

Q.3: Pointing to a woman in a picture, Taran said, “She is the mother of the father-in-low of my husband”. How is Taran related to that woman ?
A. Mother
B. Granddaughter
C. Sister
D. Daughter

Q.4: The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operations(s) on the first number. The same operations(s) are followed in all the number pairs, except one. Find that odd number pair.
A. 3 : 7
B. 15 : 63
C. 8 : 26
D. 23 : 123

Q.5: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series ?
4, 9, 17, 30, 50, 81, 125, ?
A. 186
B. 166
C. 168
D. 163

Q.6: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Cow : Bull :: Mice : ?
A. Cat
B. Fox
C. Mouse
D. Dog

Q.7: Two different positions of the same dice are shown. the six faces of which are numbered from 11 to 16. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ’12’.

A. 13
B. 16
C. 14
D. 11

Q.8: If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘x’, C denotes ‘-‘ and D denotes , then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation ?
41 C 29 A (38 B 3) D 19 A 61 C 17 = ?
A. 70
B. 66
C. 58
D. 62

Q.9: Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
25 : 4 :: 64 : ? :: 225 : 14
A. 8
B. 10
C. 7
D. 9

Q.10: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series ?
569, 526, 483, 440, 397, ?
A. 369
B. 340
C. 326
D. 354

Q.11: In a certain code language, ‘FLEECE’ is written as ‘EFCLEE’ and ‘OVERCOAT’ is written as ‘TOAVOECR’. How will ‘MITTEN’ be written in that language ?
A. NMIETT
B. NMEITT
C. NMETIT
D. NEMITT

Q.12: Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * sings and to balance the given equation.
31*29*43*85*5
A. +, x, =, –
B.
C. +, +, =, x
D.

Q.13: Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ZFOE, PYUA, FRAW, VKES, ?
A. KDIO
B. KCIO
C. LDIO
D. LCIO

Q.14: A paper is folded and cut as shown. How will it appear when unfolded?

Q.15: Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first and fourth term related to third term.
9 : 270 :: 15 : 450 :: 13 : ?
A. 390
B. 385
C. 380
D. 395

Q.16: How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 28
B. 26
C. 22
D. 24

Q.17: Select the option that represents the correct order of the correct order of the give words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Vantage
2. Wherefore
3. Uplift
4. Various
5. Variety
6. Valor
A. 3, 6, 1, 5, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2
C. 3, 6, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 6, 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Q.18: In a certain code language, ‘COMPUTER’ is written as ‘RETUCOMP’ and ‘LAPTOP’ is written as ‘POTLAP’. How will ‘BOTTLE’ be written in the language ?
A. ELTBOT
B. ELTBTO
C. ETLBOT
D. ELTTOB

Q.19: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series ?
14, 14, 12, 36, 32, 160, ?
A. 150
B. 166
C. 154
D. 145

Q.20: Three Statements are given followed by Three conclusion numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements.
All books are copies.
No copy is a pen.
Some erasers are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some copies are erasers.
II. Some pens are books.
III. No eraser is a pen.
A. Only conclusion II follows.
B. Both conclusions I and II follow.
C. Both conclusions I and III follow.
D. Only conclusions I follows.

Q.21: Select the option that is related to the fifth word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word and the fourth word is related to the third word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Nut and Bold : Wrenches :: Screw : Screwdriver :: Nail : ?
A. Scissors
B. Pliers
C. Hammer
D. Axe

Q.22: In a certain code language, ‘GREAT’ is coded as ‘2015187’, ‘WORK’ is coded as ‘11181523’ and ‘GOING’ is coded as ‘7149157’. How will ‘WELL’ be coded in that language?
A. 1425431
B. 3231345
C. 1454321
D. 1212523

Q.23: Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

86	72	158
98	111	209
76	65	?

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without braking down the number into its constituent digits. For example, 13-Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
A. 148
B. 131
C. 141
D. 137

Q.24: Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All pencils are erasers.
All sharpeners are erasers.
All compasses are sharpeners.
Conclusions:
I. All compasses are erasers.
II. Some compasses are pencils.
III. Some erasers are compass.
A. Only conclusions I and III follow
B. Only conclusions I follow
C. Only conclusions II follow
D. Only conclusions I and II follow

Q.25: Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
A B Z _ P A B _ K P A B X K _ A B _ K P
A. A C B Z
B. A Y Z W
C. K Y P W
D. K C Z W

Mathematics Question : CUET General Test Practice Paper

Q.26: Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the number of appeared candidates and passed candidates (in hundreds) in a test from six different institutions.

A. 1460
B. 1280
C. 1500
D. 1680

Q.27: A software company has only 3 divisions that have 20, 30 and 40 employees, respectively. If the working percentage of this during a weekend were 20%, 30% and 40%, respectively, then the working percentage of the entire company during that weekend was approximately;
A. 0.0032
B. 3.2
C. 0.032
D. 32

Q.28: If , then the value of is _________.
A.
B. 512
C.
D. 4096

Q.29: There are two types of milk. The price of one type of milk is 70/litre and the price of others type of milk is 50/litre. If the two types of milk are mixed, the price of new mixture will be 55/litre. Find the ratio of the two types of milk in this new mixture.
A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 4
D. 1 : 3

Q.30: A man completes a journey in ten hours. He travels at a speed of 21 km/h for the first half of the journey and at a speed of 24 km/h for the second half. Calculate the total distance travelled (in kilometers).
A. 212
B. 224
C. 235
D. 230

Q.31: The radii of two circles are 4 cm and 7 cm and the distance between their centres is 12 cm. Find the length of the direct common tangent to the circles.
A. cm
B. cm
C. cm
D. cm

Q.32: If p = 11, then the value of p(p² + 3p + 3) is:
A. 1629
B. 1225
C. 1727
D. 1111

Q.33: 24 – [52-{4+10 x (-3)}] =?
A. 54
B. -54
C. -44
D. 44

Q.34: In an election, the winning candidate received 15744 votes, which are 48% of the electorate. The only other candidate received 22% of the electorate. What is the number of members who did NOT vote?
A. 9860
B. 9870
C. 9840
D. 9850

Q.35: Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows loans disbursed by five banks (in ₹crore) from 1982 to 1986.

Bank	1982	1983	1984	1985	1986
A	18	23	45	30	70
B	27	33	18	41	37
C	29	28	22	17	11
D	31	16	28	32	43
E	13	19	27	34	42
Total	118	119	140	154	203

In which of the following banks did the disbursement of loan continuously decrease over the years?
A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B

Q.36: The price of a certain laptop is discounted by 20% and the reduced price is then discounted by 20%. This series of successive discounts is equivalent to a single discount of:
A. 20%
B. 26%
C. 30%
D. 36%

Q.37: A man sells good at 4% loss on cost price but he gives 20 g instead of 40 g. What is his profit or loss percentage?
A. 84% profit
B. 92% profit
C. 82% loss
D. 92% loss

Q.38: A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 30 days. They work on alternate days; starting with A. In how many days will the work be completed?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Q.39: Two trains each 200m long are moving in opposite directions. They cross each other in 10 seconds. If the speed of one train is 90km/h, find the speed of the other train.
A. 90 km/h
B. 45 km/h
C. 54 km/h
D. 36 km/h

Q.40: The distance travelled by a person varies directly with the duration of the journey. If the person travels 378 km in 7 hours, in how many hours will the person cover 918 km?
A. 16
B. 15
C. 18
D. 17

Q.41: A sum of ₹16,875, when invested at r% interest per year compounded annually, amounts t ₹19,683 after 2 years. What is the value of r?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 9

Q.42: The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively. Find the area of this triangle.
A. 6 cm²
B. 12 cm²
C. 8 cm²
D. 10 cm²

Q.43: What is the least positive value of A in the number 34278A2597, which is divisible by 9?
A. 7
B. 2
C. 1
D. 8

Q.44: Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of runs scored by a cricket player in different countries in different years.

Year/ Country	Country A	Country B	Country C	Country D
2018	30	45	50	38
2019	25	32	40	50
2020	25	35	38	50
2021	52	29	45	62

In which country did the player score the maximum number of runs in aggregate during these four years. taken together?
A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

Q.45: A shopkeeper offers 25% discount on all table lamps. He offers a further discount of 8% on the reduced price to those customers who pay cash. What does a customer have to pay in cash for a table lamp of ₹2,500?
A. ₹1,725
B. ₹1,865
C. ₹2,220
D. ₹1,780

Q.46: A rectangular water tank is 1.5 m high, 3 m long and 3.5 m wide. How much water (in litres) can it hold?
A. 13520
B. 14510
C. 15750
D. 11780

Q.47: The Group leader of a group of 6 students reported that their average weight is 46 kg. when the members of the group were asked about their individual weight, 5 of them answered: 50 kg, 52 kg, 40 kg, 44 kg, 48 kg. The 6th member said, “I can’t recall my weight”. What is his weight?
A. 43 kg
B. 44 kg
C. 45 kg
D. 42 kg

Q.48: What will be the smallest natural number to be filled in the blank in the blank for the number ’23_45678′ to be divisible by 22?
A. 7
B. 1
C. 9
D. 3

Q.49: If the sum of two numbers is 25 and their product is 144, then what is the position difference between the two numbers?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 16
D. 9

Q.50: A can do a piece of work in 24 days and B can do it in 80 days. B works alone for 2 days and A works alone on the 3^rd day. This process continues till the work is completed. In how many days will the work be completed?
A. 42
B. 45
C. 48
D. 44

GK Question : CUET General Test Practice Paper

Q.51: Who among the following is a famous violinist ?
A. Sajjad Hussain
B. Anushka Shankar
C. Krishna R Chaudhary
D. Nagai R Muralidharan

Q.52: The term ‘header’ is associated to which of the following sports?
A. Football
B. Cricket
C. Hockey
D. Basketball

Q.53: Identify the wrong pair with respect to different motions and their examples.
A. Periodic motion – Earth rotating on its axis
B. Rectilinear motion – A stone thrown up in the air at an angle
C. Rotational motion – Blades of a windmill
D. Oscillatory motion – A boat tossing up and down a river

Q.54: Identify the group of the periodic table to which cobalt belongs.
A. Group 6
B. Group 9
C. Group 5
D. Group 7

Q.55: Which of the following mountains is formed as a result of the compression of tectonic plates, leading to the formation of large fold-like structures on the Earth’s crust?
A. Ural mountain in Russia
B. Vosges mountain in Europe
C. Mt. Kilimanjaro in Africa
D. Harz mountains in Germany

Q.56: Which Article of the Indian constitution states that “Supreme Court to be a court of record”?
A. Article 135
B. Article 126
C. Article 129
D. Article 131

Q.57: Hariprasad Chaurasia is associated with which of the following instruments?
A. Shehnai
B. Bansuri
C. Sarod
D. Table

Q.58: How is tuberculosis spread in humans?
A. Inoculation into skin
B. Droplet infection
C. Direct touching
D. Contact with soil

Q.59: ‘Moon walk’ is an autobiography of _____.
A. Oscar Wilde
B. Marlon Brando
C. Michael Jackson
D. Anne Frank

Q.60: The Ganga plain extend between which two rivers ?
A. Yamuna and Teesta
B. Ghagger and Teesta
C. Ghaggar and Bhagirathi
D. Ganga and Teesta

Q.61: ______ is the money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee.
A. Credit money
B. Fiduciary money
C. Fiat money
D. Full bodied money

Q.62: Rajeev Janardan is an Indian classical _______ player of the Imdadkhani gharana.
A. tabla
B. flute
C. harmonium
D. sitar

Q.63: Which compound has the chemical formula CHCI₃ whose melting point is 209 K?
A. Carbon telrachloride
B. Chlorophenol
C. Chloroform
D. Chloroethanol

Q.64: Nobel Prize 2022 in ____________________ awarded to Ben S Bernanke, Douglas W Diamond, Philip H Dybvig.
A. Sports
B. History
C. Economics
D. Physics

Q.65: Who won the 2022 IBSF World Billiards Championship?
A. Alok Kumar
B. Sourav Kothari
C. Ashok Shandilya
D. Pankaj Advani

Q.66: India has emerged as the largest producer of sugar in the world in October 2022. India is the ______________ largest sugar exporter in the world.
A. Second
B. Seventh
C. Fifth
D. Fourth

Q.67: What is the official name of Light Combat Helicopter?
A. Lakota
B. MD 500 Defender
C. Comanche
D. Prachanda

Q.68: Chandigarh International Airport has been renamed as _____?
A. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport
B. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International Airport
C. Shaheed Bhagat Singh International Airport
D. Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport

Q.69: Who became the first female prime minister of Italy?
A. Giorgia Meloni
B. Giuseppe Conte
C. Julia Gillard
D. Rosemary Follett

Q.70: Who was conferred the Dadasaheb Phalke Award veteran for the year 2020?
A. Manoj Kumar
(B) Asha Parekh
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Saira Banu

Q.71: Who has been elected as President of Hockey India?
A. Dilip Tirkey
B. Biju Patnaik
C. Birendra Lakra
D. Dhanraj Pillay

Q.72: When is International Day for the Protection of the Ozone Layer celebrated?
A. 1st July
B. 23rd March
C. 16th September
D. 28th August

Q.73: When is International Day of Democracy celebrated?
A. 1st December
B. 21st May
C. 15th September
D. 2nd July

Q.74: Who became the winner in Asia Cup 2022?
A. Israel
B. Indonesia
C. Australia
D. Sri Lanka

Q.75 : Where is India’s 1st observatory to monitor space activity?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Maharashtra

Thanks for attempt CUET (UG) Section III Entrance Exam – General Test Model Paper for free online practice.

Answer Key : CUET General Test Practice Paper

1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (a)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (d)

21. (c)

22. (d)

23. (c)

24. (a)

25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (d)

28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (b)

31. (d)

32. (c)

33. (b)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (d)

37. (b)

38. (a)

39. (c)

40. (d)

41. (a)

42. (a)

43. (a)

44. (a)

45. (a)

46. (c)

47. (d)

48. (a)

49. (b)

50. (b)

51. (d)

52. (a)

53. (b)

54. (b)

55. (a)

56. (c)

57. (b)

58. (b)

59. (c)

60. (b)

61. (b)

62. (d)

63. (c)

64. (c)

65. (d)

66. (a)

67. (d)

68. (c)

69. (a)

70. (b)

71. (a)

72. (c)

73. (c)

74. (d)

75. (c)

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