CUET Biology Sample Paper

CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper : Free Mock Test for online practice. CUET Section II – Domain Subject Biology Practice Set is very useful for admission in 2024 -2025 academic session.

CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper

  • Instructions : Attempt any 40 questions out of 50
  • Time : 45 Minutes
  • Answer key are given end of the set

Q.1: Asexual reproduction is a method of reproduction in which participation of ……… takes place.
(a) one individual
(b) two individuals (same species)
(c) multi-individuals
(d) two individuals (different species)

Show Answer
Ans : (a) one individual

Q.2: In diploid organism the gamete producing cells are called
(a) gamete mother cell
(b) meiocytes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q.3: The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively
(a) 12, 24, 12
(b) 24, 12, 12
(c) 12, 24, 24
(d) 24, 12, 24

Show Answer
Ans : (c) 12, 24, 24

Q.4: Number of microsporangia in an angiospermic anther is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Show Answer
Ans : (d) 4

Q.5: Characteristic of wind pollinated pollens is, they are
(a) non-sticky
(b) light
(c) produced in large number
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.6: Dehiscence of anther in mesophytes is caused by
(a) hydration of anthers
(b) dehydration of anthers
(c) mechanical injury
(d) None of these

Show Answer
Ans : (b) dehydration of anthers

Q.7: Approximate length and width of testis are
(a) 4-5 cm and 2-3 cm
(b) 5-6 cm and 3-4 cm
(c) 6-7 cm and 4-5 cm
(d) 7-8 cm and 8-9 cm

Show Answer
Ans : (a) 4-5 cm and 2-3 cm

Q.8: Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
(a) GnRH
(b) prolactin
(c) testosterone
(d) oestrogen

Show Answer
Ans : (a) GnRH

Q.9: Inner cell mass or embryoblast gives rise to
(a) foetal part
(b) embryo
(c) notochord
(d) nourishment cell

Show Answer
Ans : (b) embryo

Q.10: Family planning programme was initiated in
(a) 1951
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1950

Show Answer
Ans : (a) 1951

Q.11: The other names for STIs or STDs are
(a) venereal diseases
(b) reproductive tract infections
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q.12: GIFT can be advised to couples where female partner is
(a) unable to produce eggs
(b) unable to support a foetus
(c) unable to provide suitable environment for fertilisation and maturation of foetus
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.13: Out of 7 contrasting trait pairs selected by Mendel, how many traits were dominant and recessive?
(a) 7 and 7
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 6 and 8
(d) 5 and 9

Show Answer
Ans : (a) 7 and 7

Q.14: If there are four different types of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G and C) then how many different types of transitions and transversion are possible?
(a) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4
(b) Transition = 4, Transversion = 4
(c) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4
(d) Transition = 4, Transversion = 8

Show Answer
Ans : (d) Transition = 4, Transversion = 8

Q.15: In sickle-cell anaemia,
(a) Both parents are heterozygous carriers, but are unaffected
(b) Single pair of allele controls the disease
(c) Only Hb Hb s s show diseased phenotype
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.16: Choose the correct option.
(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine
(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine

Show Answer
Ans : (b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine

Q.17: Termination of protein synthesis or translation requires
(a) Both stop signal and starting codon
(b) Both starting codon and release factor
(c) Both release factor and stop codon
(d) GUG and AUG codon

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Both release factor and stop codon

Q.18: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying the differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called
(a) non-repetitive DNA
(b) coding DNA
(c) non-coding DNA
(d) repetitive DNA

Show Answer
Ans : (d) repetitive DNA

Q.19: Evidence that evolution of life forms has indeed taken place on earth has come from
(a) fossil studies (palaeontological evidences)
(b) morphological and comparative anatomical studies
(c) biochemical studies
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.20: First human like hominid is known as
(a) Neanderthal man
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Dryopithecus
(d) Homo erectus

Show Answer
Ans : (b) Homo habilis

Q.21: The diagram given here shows the skull of two different mammals. Choose the most appropriate difference between A and B.

CUET Biology Sample Paper

(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human

Show Answer
Ans : (d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human

Q.22: Common symptoms of typhoid are
(a) high fever 39°C to 40°C and weakness
(b) stomach pain and constipation
(c) headache and loss of appetite
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.23: Physical carcinogens, e.g. UV-ray, X-ray and g-rays cause
(a) DNA damage
(b) RNA damage
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) Protein damage

Show Answer
Ans : (a) DNA damage

Q.24: LSD is derived from
(a) Claviceps purpurea
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Cannabis indica
(d) Cannabis sativa

Show Answer
Ans : (a) Claviceps purpurea

Q.25: Choose the correct option.
(a) More than 70% of the world livestock population is in India and China
(b) The contribution of India and china to the world farm produce is about 25%
(c) Important livestock of India are cattle and buffaloes
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Q.26: Pomato is a somatic hybrid of
(a) potato and onion
(b) potato and tomato
(c) potato and brinjal
(d) brinjal and tomato

Show Answer
Ans : (b) potato and tomato

Q.27: The technique of regeneration of whole plant from any part of a plant by allowing it to grow on a suitable culture under aseptic sterile conditions in vitro is called
(a) tissue culture
(b) plant culture
(c) micropropagation
(d) somatic hybridisation

Show Answer
Ans : (a) tissue culture

Q.28: The microscopic proteinaceous infectious agents are
(a) viroids
(b) prions
(c) protozoans
(d) bacteria

Show Answer
Ans : (b) prions

Q.29: In the primary treatment of sewage, the soil and small pebbles are removed by
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) condensation
(d) evaporation

Show Answer
Ans : (b) sedimentation

Q.30: A biocontrol agent used for pest butterfly caterpillars is
(a) Trichoderma
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Rhizobium

Show Answer
Ans : (b) Bacillus thuringiensis

Q.31: Restriction endonuclease binds to DNA and cuts two strands of double helix at specific points in their
(a) sugar-phosphate backbone
(b) hydrogen bond
(c) glycosidic bonds
(d) None of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (a) sugar-phosphate backbone

Q.32: Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers a piece of DNA into dicot plant. The piece of DNA is called as
(a) rDNA
(b) T-DNA
(c) mDNA
(d) cDNA

Show Answer
Ans : (b) T-DNA

Q.33: Protein encoding gene which is expressed in heterologous host is
(a) foreign protein
(b) heterologous protein
(c) recombinant protein
(d) alien protein

Show Answer
Ans : (c) recombinant protein

Q.34: Bt toxin is
(a) intracellular crystalline protein
(b) extracellular crystalline protein
(c) intracellular monosaccharide
(d) extracellular polysaccharide

Show Answer
Ans : (a) intracellular crystalline protein

Q.35: Which of the following transgenic animals are used in testing safety of polio vaccine before they are used on human?
(a) Transgenic cow
(b) Transgenic monkey
(c) Transgenic mice
(d) Transgenic sheep

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Transgenic mice

Q.36: For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4 year old girl in 1990 to treat which of the following enzyme deficiency?
(a) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
(b) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
(c) Tyrosine oxidase
(d) Glutamate trihydrogenase

Show Answer
Ans : (b) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)

Q.37: Different organisms are adapted to their environment in terms of not only survival but also reproduction. This statement belongs to
(a) physiological ecology
(b) species ecology
(c) population ecology
(d) All of these

Show Answer
Ans : (a) physiological ecology

Q.38: Interspecific interaction could be
(a) beneficial
(b) detrimental
(c) neutral
(d) All of these

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of these

Q.39: Mycorrhiza represents an intimate mutualistic relationship between
(a) fungi and stem of higher plants
(b) fungi and roots of higher plants
(c) fungi and leaves of higher plants
(d) fungi and leaflets of higher plants

Show Answer
Ans : (b) fungi and roots of higher plants

Q.40: Stratification is more pronounced in
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) deciduous forest
(c) temperate forest
(d) tropical savannah

Show Answer
Ans : (a) tropical rainforest

Q.41: The relation between producers and consumers in an ecosystem can be graphically represented in the form of a pyramid called
(a) ecological pyramid
(b) trophic level
(c) Pi chart
(d) pyramid of biomass

Show Answer
Ans : (a) ecological pyramid

Q.42: Which of the following factor is contributing to an overload of the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Cellular respiration
(c) Deforestation
(d) Afforestation

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Deforestation

Q.43: Tropics (23.5°N to 23.5°S) have ……. species as compared to temperate or polar regions. The most appropriate word to
fill the blank is
(a) less
(b) equal
(c) more
(d) None of these

Show Answer
Ans : (c) more

Q.44: In which one of the following, both pairs have correct combination?
(a) In situ conservation/National park Ex situ conservation/Botanical garden
(b) In situ conservation/Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation/Wildlife sanctuary
(c) In situ conservation/Seed bank Ex situ conservation/National park
(d) In situ conservation/Tissue culture Ex situ conservation/Sacred groves

Show Answer
Ans : (a) In situ conservation/National park Ex situ conservation/Botanical garden

Q.45: Sacred groves in India are found in
(a) Jaintia hills of Karnataka
(b) Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu
(c) Aravalli hills of Meghalaya
(d) Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Ans : (d) Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh

Q.46: Which of the following problem(s) is/are created by a brief exposure to extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more generated by take off of a jet plane or rocket?
(a) Deafness
(b) Damage eardrums
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Both (a) and (b)

Q.47: Slash and burn agriculture in North-Eastern states of India is also called
(a) ley farming
(b) commercial agriculture
(c) Jhum cultivation
(d) All of these

Show Answer
Ans : (c) Jhum cultivation

Q.48: Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas because it is
(a) used in greenhouse to increase plant growth
(b) transparent to heat but traps sunlight
(c) transparent to sunlight but traps heat
(d) transparent to both sunlight and heat

Show Answer
Ans : (c) transparent to sunlight but traps heat

Q.49: In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by
(a) water currents only
(b) wind and water
(c) insects and water
(d) insects or wind

Show Answer
Ans : (d) insects or wind

Q.50: Which one of the following is true with respect to AUG?
(a) It codes for methionine only
(b) It is also an initiation codon
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(d) All of the above

Show Answer
Ans : (d) All of the above

Answer Key : CUET (UG) Biology Sample Paper

1. (a)2. (c)3. (c)4. (d)5. (d)6. (b)7. (a)8. (a)9. (b)10. (a)
11. (c)12. (d)13. (a)14. (d)15. (d)16. (b)17. (c)18. (d)19. (d)20. (b)
21. (d)22. (d)23. (a)24. (a)25. (d)26. (b)27. (a)28. (b)29. (b)30. (b)
31. (a)32. (b)33. (c)34. (a)35. (c)36. (b)37. (a)38. (d)39. (b)40. (a)
41. (a)42. (c)43. (c)44. (a)45. (d)46. (c)47. (c)48. (c)49. (d)50. (d)

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